Monday, May 16, 2022

my reply to BellatorChristi.com on bible "hell"

This is my reply to an article by Dr. Daniel Merritt, Ph.D., Th.D,  at BellatorChristi entitled

When is the last time you heard a sermon on hell? 

It's been about 25 years. 

Hell is a doctrine that in the majority of Christendom is dismissed today as being an archaic belief that is ripped right out of the pages of mythology.

If it is the "majority of Christendom" that dismisses "hell", then you have a choice: The majority of Christians who dismiss hell are spiritually alive or dead.  If they are spiritually alive, then you are a fool to expect spiritually dead skeptics to have a more accurate understanding of a biblical doctrine than a spiritually alive Christian has.  In that case, spiritual death gives the skeptic all the reasonableness they need to reject the doctrine.  If you don't expect a blind person to see what is in front of them, why would you expect a spiritually dead person to discern biblical "truth"?

If most Christians who reject hell are spiritually dead, then they would obviously disagree with you. If two Christians within the Trinitarian group question each other's salvation, you are a fool to expect a spiritually dead skeptic to figure out who is right and to thus to avoid the Christian who is "wrong" about hell.

But either way, your comment is problematically generalized.  The vast majority of Christians do not dismiss "hell", they dismiss the eternal conscious torment-interpretation of biblical "hell".

So you have set up a false dilemma:  the issue is not whether Christians should believe a biblical doctrine of hell, but whether they can be reasonable to interpret biblical hell as annihilation.  As you are well aware, annihilationism is convincing more and more Christians within the Trinitarian group, it isn't just the 7th day Adventists and Jehovah's Witnesses.  Clark Pinnock was a signatory to the ICBI statement on bible inerrancy (see here), yet he held:

How can Christians possibly project a deity of such cruelty and vindictiveness whose ways include inflicting everlasting torture upon his creatures, however sinful they may have been? Surely a God who would do such a thing is more nearly like Satan than like God, at least by any ordinary moral standards, and by the Gospel itself"
“The Destruction of the Finally Impenitent”, Criswell Theological Review, Spring, 1990: p. 246-247

Merritt continues: 

To speak of hell today is considered to be an unnecessary figment of over religious minds that seek to scare someone into submitting to an ogre-like God who takes delight in throwing someone who “steps out of line” into an eternal lake of fire.

Deuteronomy 28:63 sums up a list of horrors that only a lunatic would inflict on children, then sums up the list saying that just as god would "delight" to give abundance to those who obey, he will also "delight" the same way to inflict those horrors on children.

 54 "The man who is refined and very delicate among you shall be hostile toward his brother and toward the wife he cherishes and toward the rest of his children who remain,
 55 so that he will not give even one of them any of the flesh of his children which he will eat, since he has nothing else left, during the siege and the distress by which your enemy will oppress you in all your towns.
 56 "The refined and delicate woman among you, who would not enture to set the sole of her foot on the ground for delicateness and refinement, shall be hostile toward the husband she cherishes and toward her son and daughter,
 57 and toward her afterbirth which issues from between her legs and toward her children whom she bears; for she will eat them secretly for lack of anything else, during the siege and the distress by which your enemy will oppress you in your towns. (Deut. 28:54-57 NAU)

 63 "It shall come about that as the LORD delighted over you to prosper you, and multiply you, so the LORD will delight over you to make you perish and destroy you; and you will be torn from the land where you are entering to possess it. (Deut. 28:63 NAU)

Merritt continues: 

After all, it is said, a loving God would never banish anyone to suffer the fate of eternal flames.

Sort of like "a loving father would never rape his adult daughter".

Interestingly, Jesus spoke more on hell than He did heaven.

That is a lie.

http://www.rightreason.org/2010/did-jesus-preach-hell-more-than-heaven/

That being true, teaching about hell must not be dismissed as being antiquated, but is of the utmost importance to understand why there is a hell…and even more so how to avoid such a place.

Naw, Jesus was just another dime-store fanatic.  I've written thousands of pages refuting the resurrection arguments of Habermas, Licona and other apologists.

While discussing hell is a topic one would like to avoid and dismiss, if it is a real place to neglect attention to its existence is at one’s own peril.

Sure, if you can "show" that Jesus' warnings about hell apply to modern-day people.  Good luck attempting mission impossible. 

The bottom line is this, when one understands the holiness of God one understands why there is a hell.

It is beyond dispute that ancient semitic people exaggerated matters in their daily conversations and especially their religious writings.  You would probably resort to that excuse to get rid of the horrors in Deuteronomy 28, supra, thus motivating skeptics to wonder whether Jesus' warnings about hell were also just another case of Semitic exaggeration.

Indeed, you probably don't have the first clue as to how to tell when ancient Semitic theology is employing exaggeration and when it isn't.

And whatever teaching-resource you recommend, how can I stay safe from the threat of hell while I go about procuring and studying that hermeneutical aid? 

What would be the point of such study if I'm supposed to believe/obey first, and only study second?  Doesn't rationality require that I first learn about the issues and form an hypothesis before I just dive in?   But then again, does the urgency of needing to avoid hell make it 'dangerous' for me to delay the day of my salvation?

I mean, if I died in a car accident on the way to the library to check out "1001 Ways to distinguish Semitic reality from Semitic exaggeration", would I be saved because I was searching?  Would I go to hell because I wasn't a Christian at the time I died?  Or would you pull the same desperate excuse Lydia McGrew did, and speculate that there a second chance in the afterlife for those who die while in the effort to check out Christian claims?

And how long does God want me to study Calvinism, before he will expect me to draw conclusions about whether my choices in life contribute anything to my life, or if they are rendered nothing more than reactions to the allegedly infallible divine will?  If you don't know how long God wants me to study Calvinism, don't you forfeit the right to balk if I answer that question for myself in a way you don't like?

And when one understands the holiness of God and sees their own sinfulness in the light of His pure and perfect holiness, one understands that hell is what we all actually deserve.

Your god is not that holy.  The bible attests that he is often corrected by smarter humans.  See Exodus 32:9-14.  The efforts of classical theists to distinguish this from the analogous case of a friend changing their mind after receiving better advice from another human being, are laughable and are guided more by concerns about inerrancy and less by concerns to interpret the story correctly.  But bible inerrancy is a false doctrine, so I can be reasonable to remain open to the possibility that the bible makes contradictory statements about god. 

When one grasps the majestic, perfect holiness of God, like Isaiah (Is. 6), one will realize they are sinfully-unworthy to EVER encounter the presence of One so holy-other.

Didn't the sinful Balaam encounter God in Numbers 22:33, you know, that bible verse that equates God with Satan?

Come, let us reason together.

Then God is a fucking idiot because he in Romans 3:9-18 condemns man's ability to reason correctly. 

Understanding Why There is a Hell and God’s Nature as Holy-Love

Are you even AWARE that many Trinitarian Evangelical Christian scholars have abandoned the eternal conscious torment version of hell for annihilationism?  And yet you talk as if you can wave aside all that Trinitarian scholarship because of god's holiness...as if you think many such scholars, despite having legitimate claims to being both authentically born again and walking in the light of Christ for decades, somehow "missed" that the holiness of god somehow demands that he torture unrepentant sinners forever.  LOL.

The Bible is clear that God is holy and that God is love

The Apocrypha is also clear that the Maccabees were zealous Jews.  Did you have a point? 

…He is holy-love.

He is also stupid, by his own admission.  See Genesis 6:6.  The immediate context indicates the statement about God's dissatisfaction with his prior decision to create man is no less literal than the prior story of the sons of God taking the daughters of men.  It is how the originally intended audience would have interpreted the account, which matters most in interpretation, and such audience, being pre-scientific and mostly illiterate, would not have had the theological sophistication to pretend that they would have trifled that such language is "anthropomorphism".

While Christendom puts great emphasis on God’s love, His love cannot be properly appreciated if one doesn’t understand His holiness.

That is stupid:  you can see the love of a man in assisting a victim of a traffic accident when he calls 911, even if you don't know anything more about him.  Assuming he called 911 out of a general love for humanity is going to be reasonable until specific evidence is given indicating he called 911 for other more selfish reasons. 

Holiness denotes the absolute majesty and splendor of God, that He is distinctly transcendent from any other being or thing He has created. He is holy-other. Holiness describes the essence of God. He is holy; divine holiness of character being who He is in all of His perfect ethical and moral authenticity and truthfulness. Holiness is His self-affirming purity; He cannot be other than holy.

Was Jesus still holy at the time he "became sin" (2nd Cor. 5:21)?

Or did I forget that Jesus has two natures and that it was only his human nature that became sin?

Gee, that's funny, the bible doesn't  put forth much effort to say Jesus had two natures, and the gospels most certainly don't get that specific.  Aren't you as a Christian supposed to be concerned that this sharp distinction between Jesus' human and divine natures was condemned at The Council of Chalcedon?

...One and the Same Christ, Son, Lord, Only-begotten; acknowledged in Two Natures unconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; the difference of the Natures being in no way removed because of the Union, but rather the properties of each Nature being preserved, and (both) concurring into One Person and One Hypostasis; not as though He was parted or divided into Two Persons, but One and the Self-same Son and Only-begotten God, Word, Lord, Jesus Christ; even as from the beginning the prophets have taught concerning Him, and as the Lord Jesus Christ Himself hath taught us, and as the Symbol of the Fathers hath handed down to us.

If Jesus is a single person, and that person has two natures, then its going to be reasonable to conclude that when "Jesus" became sin (2nd Cor. 5:21), ALL of him became sin, not merely his "human nature". I don't personally care if the apostle Paul would trifle otherwise, just like I wouldn't care if Paul trifled that demon serpents bite the spirits of unbelievers in some after-life. Paul doesn't have the minimal credentials I require in order to justify me in trusting his judgment about horrifically debatable things that not even Trinitarian Christians can agree on.

Merritt continues:

Holiness is God’s perfect righteousness. Habakkuk says, “Thou art of purer eyes than to behold evil, and canst not look on iniquity” (Hab. 1:13). Holiness is God’s infinite value and worth as the One who is absolutely unique and morally pure and perfect. God’s holiness pervades His entire being and shapes all His attributes and His actions with humanity. That God is holy means that His very being is completely devoid of even a trace of sin, unrighteousness, or moral deviation.

Semitic exaggeration. 

Understanding Why There is a Hell and the Creation Story
In the Creation Story, it was God’s desire that holiness be the atmosphere which would pervade the Garden of Eden, and man through fellowship with his Creator was to cooperatively conform to the order of His holiness. All of creation was to reflect the nature of a holy God, reflect the holiness of the Creator. God created the world where His holiness was woven into the very fabric of creation. When man willfully sinned, he defied God’s holiness.

But man in sinning conformed perfectly to the hidden will of God, or so the consistent 5 Point Calvinists say.  How long do you recommend an unbeliever research the biblical claims of Calvinists about God's sovereignty?  If you don't have biblical justification for that length of recommended time, isn't your recommendation something less than absolute?  Doesn't that mean that it will be reasonable for the unbeliever to disagree and suggest another length of time to study such a subject? 

The doctrine of Original Sin means that each of us have inherited a sinful nature from disobedient Adam.

A doctrine denied by the Orthodox church and several other denominations such as Church of Christ.  How long do you recommend an unbeliever study their arguments aginst original sin before God will expect them to start drawing conclusions about that doctrine?  

And how can the unbeliever stay safe from the threat of hell while they engage in that research?

Our inherited sinful nature means we are more than children who have gone astray, but we possess a nature that is consciously and actively rebellious against God’s holiness and our rebellion is directed against the holy God who created us and who is the true Source of all spiritual and ethical morality and reality. We are sinners by nature and by choice.

Correction, we only choose to sin because our nature is sinful.  If we didn't have a sin nature, we wouldn't sin any more than Jesus sinned. 

Sin is that which seeks to undermine God’s rightful place in our lives and in mutiny disregards the very holiness of God. Sin in its very nature, is an assault on God’s holiness. When His holiness is violated, nature and man convulse with consequences which repulses holiness and invites holy justice.

But if God is everything you think he is, he knew sin was inevitable, and therefore, God no more "expected" Adam and Eve to consistently obey him than you would expect a cow to jump over the moon.  With good reason the bible warns you against peering into theology too much:  you might discover its fallacies.  Pay no attention to the man behind the curtain!

Understanding Why There is a Hell and the Guilt of Sin
For our holy God there can be no compromise with sin.

Then what word would you use to characterize God's "allowing" polygamy in the OT?  Isn't "compromise" the best word?  If the Adam and Eve marriage model is valid, polygamy would have been sin in the OT. 

Sin must be dealt with.

No, Jesus forgave sins plenty including forgiving those who manifested neither repentance nor desire for forgiveness.  Luke 23:34.  God no more needs to "punish" sin than you need to "rob a bank".

You will, of course, trifle that Jesus' granting forgiveness during his earthly ministry was with a view toward his need to die for those sins.  That is also bullshit, even in the OT, God can get rid of sin with nothing more than a wave of his magic wand:

 13 Then David said to Nathan, "I have sinned against the LORD." And Nathan said to David, "The LORD also has taken away your sin; you shall not die. (2 Sam. 12:13 NAU)

See how easy it is for God to lift the death penalty against adultery and murder?

But then your "holy" God decides to torture David's infant son for 7 days for sins the baby obviously wasn't guilty of:

 14 "However, because by this deed you have given occasion to the enemies of the LORD to blaspheme, the child also that is born to you shall surely die."
 15 So Nathan went to his house. Then the LORD struck the child that Uriah's widow bore to David, so that he was very sick.
 16 David therefore inquired of God for the child; and David fasted and went and lay all night on the ground.
 17 The elders of his household stood beside him in order to raise him up from the ground, but he was unwilling and would not eat food with them.
 18 Then it happened on the seventh day that the child died.  (2 Sam. 12:14-18 NAU)

Merritt continues:

Judgement is holiness’ reaction to sin.

Unfortunately for you, forgiveness is also Holiness' reaction to sin.  Luke 23:34.  And it's spelled "judgment", not "judgement". 

Hell is where all sin that is not adequately dealt with will be banished; banished to a place of eternal alienation from God because holiness’ reaction to sin is just judgment.

Why can't god simply forgive unrepentant unbelievers the way Jesus did in Luke 23:34?

Why can't God cause a fetus to be filled with the Holy Spirit, at a time in its life when it is incapable of choosing between good and evil (Luke 1:15)?

If God knows of a non-hell non-judgment way to reduce the amount of sin in the world, and he doesn't employ that solution, doesn't that make it reasonable, even if not infallible, to conclude that God likes to take problems and falsely insist they are bigger than they really are?  In other words, your god is a drama-queen?

Since I am guilty before a holy God, since my sinful and rebellious nature has willfully rebelled against His pure and perfect holiness, unless my sin is dealt with, then holiness will justly deal with sin in judgement.

God could have spared you all that sin-problem by simply filling you with the Holy Spirit before you were born, Luke 1:15.  So if God chose to employ a solution that didn't preempt you from sinning, then God obviously wanted you to sin.  God knew of a way to achieve his will with you without allowing sin, but he chose to forego that solution and employ a solution that involved you becoming a sinner.  The notion that God "doesn't want" you to sin, is utterly stupid, and only dictated by the requirements of your theology, not common sense.  And Exodus 32:9-14 indicates God sometimes lacks common sense.  And Genesis 6:6 indicates God sometimes regrets not mankind's becoming sinful, but regrets his own decision to create mankind in the first place. 

When one sees their sin in the light of God’s perfect and pure holiness, they realize that they are undeserving to ever come into the presence of His majestic holiness and justly deserve judgment.

Then how do you explain other equally authentically born again Trinitarians, whose salvation status you would charitably refuse to question, who say this article of yours teaches a heretical view of hell and god's justice?

Should skeptics be warned that even if they become authentically born again, there is STILL a very good chance they will end up espousing "heresy"?  Then maybe my standards are higher than god's, but I don't see the point of going through the motions to convince myself I am "born again", if this still leaves the doors wide open to the possibility that I'll get a nasty surprise on judgment day (Matthew 7:22-23, Hebrews 6:4-8). 

A holy God owes sin nothing but well-deserved judgment.

According to Luke 23:34, a holy god also believes himself obligated to forgive the type of sinners that not only engage in sin against him, but who manifest not the slightest bit of intent to repent or seek forgiveness. 

God would deny His own holy nature if His holiness did not react to sin in judgement.

Then God must have been denying his own holy nature in 2nd Samuel 12:13, supra, where he exempts David from the death penalty for both murder and adultery.  Apparently, god is capable of relaxing his standards when he really wants to.  He is also capable of punishing David's baby for sins the baby did not commit (v. 15-18), which opens the door wide to the possibility that god sees nothing wrong in torturing babies in hell.  If he doesn't see anything wrong in torturing babies in this current life, what makes you think god would regard it as "unjust" to do the same to a baby in the afterworld? 

Understanding Why There is a Hell and the Offense of Sin
Now remember, God is holy-love. Though God’s love desires to extend forgiveness, the offensiveness of sin and sin’s assault on holiness must first be satisfied and dealt with.

No, see Luke 23:34 

While holiness cannot overlook sin, it must judge it,

False, God got rid of David's sins by merely waving his magic wand.  2nd Samuel 12:13. 

His love provided the means were by His holiness was satisfied and our sins could be forgiven!!

But his love apparently knew of a way to "forgive" people of sin before Jesus was crucified.  Jesus was forgiving unrepentant sinners in Luke 23:34, and the OT is clear that under the animal sacrifice system, the blood of bulls and goats made a person "clean of their sins before the Lord". Leviticus 16:30.

God also apparently sees nothing wrong in causing sinners to be filled with the Holy Spirit before they are born.  Luke 1:15.  One wonders how much sin would be avoided, and how much excuse for divine wrath God would be deprived of, had he done for all humans what he did for John the Baptist in Luke 1:15.

Our holy God in love took upon Himself our flesh, and becoming the representative man, becoming our substitute, He lived that perfect holy life which holiness demands but to which we cannot comply, therefore deserving judgement.

Wrong again, the OT is clear that obeying all of God's commands is NOT too difficult:

10 if you obey the LORD your God to keep His commandments and His statutes which are written in this book of the law, if you turn to the LORD your God with all your heart and soul.
 11 "For this commandment which I command you today is not too difficult for you, nor is it out of reach.
 12 "It is not in heaven, that you should say, 'Who will go up to heaven for us to get it for us and make us hear it, that we may observe it?'
 13 "Nor is it beyond the sea, that you should say, 'Who will cross the sea for us to get it for us and make us hear it, that we may observe it?'
 14 "But the word is very near you, in your mouth and in your heart, that you may observe it. (Deut. 30:10-14 NAU)

Merritt continues: 

Christ, as your and my representative perfectly complied with God’s holy demands which we could never do, thus satisfying the demands of holiness.

Jesus could not possibly have "perfectly" complied, because Luke 2:52 says Jesus grew in "favor with God".  IF that is true, then his conformity to god's will in his earlier years cannot have been as perfect as his conformity to God's will in his later years.  Yes, Luke 2:52 is an affront to Jesus' alleged divine "nature", but we are reasonable to assume Luke did not possess the sophistication of Nicaea and later councils.  When he said "Jesus" grew in favor with God, we are reasonable to assume he meant everything that made up Jesus, he did not mean "only his human nature".  Since the question is whether skeptics can be reasonable to view things that way, your predictable recital to God's mysterious ways does not function to impose the least bit of intellectual obligation on the skeptic, nor does not function as "rebuttal", it merely helps you save face. 

Then on the cross, the perfect Son of God took the sin of humanity upon Himself and confessed holiness’ just judgment on sin, which judgement you and I deserved, thus demonstrating love that goes beyond our comprehension.

If "love" goes beyond our comprehension, then so does the manner in which god withholds love, in which case there is a probability that the reason we shy away from saying God sends some babies to hell arises from our inability to understand god's ways.  Torturing babies in hell certainly defies common sense, but in Christian apologetics, "common sense" is routinely tossed out the window when expediency dictates.

Christ lived a life I could not live, then paid a debt I could never pay (Romans 5:8; 2 Cor. 5:21). Now that is LOVE….

And the child molester gave the child food and water during the two months that he held her in his basement after kidnapping her.  Now that is LOVE...but obviously humans are quite capable of manifesting "love" while also manifesting desire to harm.  So it doesn't matter that God shows "love", real-world experience teaches us that the person who does a loving thing, can just as easily harbor desire to harm the entire time. 

and when you and I understand the holiness of God and the just judgment upon sin for violating God’s holiness, then one bows in awe and wonder at such love demonstrated in the Christ event that makes it possible for sinful man to escape our sins deserved fate.

No, God can simply cause people to be filled with the Holy Spirit before they are born (Luke 1:15) and can get rid of our sins by simply waving his magic wand the same way he exempted David from the death penalties for adultery and murder (2nd Samuel 12:13).  God's preferred method is apparently to avoid the solution that suppresses sin as much as possible. 

When one grasps what Christ willingly did for us in His life and death, then the word “grace” takes on a depth of meaning that results in praise forever flowing from our lips.
Conclusion
Yes, there is a hell.

This was a horrifically weak argument.  You avoided all biblical referenes to hell and simply tried to prove something with human sophistry, when Paul,  your faith hero, was telling you for 2,000 years that persuasive words are not the true Christian's priority (1st Cor. 2:4-5).

Hell is a reserved place for divine justice in the face of willful defiance to divine holiness.

But most non-Christians are not "willfully" defying God anymore than authentically born again Trinitarians who are Preterist are "willfully" defying Acts 1:11.  So was it your intention to teach that the vast majority of non-Christians don't go to hell in the afterworld? 

Holiness’ judgement is justified reactional justice on sin’s violation of God’s pure and perfect holy nature.

But human wisdom can successfully persuade god that his intent to judge humans is stupid and should be avoided.   Exodus 32:9-14. 

Yet His divine love, as seen in the Christ of the cross, is offered and available to all who see their sinfulness in the light of his divine holiness and embrace the indescribable provision that is found in Jesus Christ.

No thank you.  The true gospel was preached by Jesus before he died, and for obvious reasons did not require anybody to believe he died for their sins.  You will say the rules changed, or something was "added" somehow when Jesus died on the cross, so, how long does God want unbelievers to study the differences of bible interpretation between dispensationsalists themselves, and between dispensationalists and covenant theologians, before he will expect the unbeliever to start drawing conclusions about who is right and wrong?  If you don't know, you forfeit the right to balk if I answer that question for myself in a way you don't like.

Therefore, if I have studied the matter for several years, I cannot be faulted if my conclusions are "wrong".

What I find stupid about the doctrine of hell and God is that we are supposed to believe that there is terrible danger to unbelievers, and yet it is not god, but a mass of conflicting Christian theologians and apologists, who are the only ones doing the talking.  If the creator of hell doesn't wish to make himself sufficiently clear for even authentically born again Trinitarians, he is a fucking fool to "expect" spiritually dead skeptics to "correctly" interpret biblical "hell".

Monday, May 9, 2022

the leaked SCOTUS opinion

 I just want to go on record saying that I think most of the SCOTUS justices likely knew of and implicitly if not explicitly approved of somebody leaking the opinion this early.  SCOTUS is always worried about how "evolving society" reinterprets the Constitution, and it only make sense, from the perspective of the Justices, to want to see how the nation would react before they make their position into law.

However, they would be creating legal hell for themselves if they admitted they wanted that opinion leaked early.

Therefore, what probably happened was what happened when one gangster communicates to another an implicit request for murder.  Of course they aren't going to state the terms very clearly, and the ambiguity is always in the name of future plausible deniability.   So I plan to laugh at any such Justice who in the future tries to pretend that the leak was unwanted or unfortunate.  BULLSHIT.

But the Justices are fools if they want us to think they'd never find anything useful toward the goal of keeping the peace and avoiding civil war by leaking a draft of an opinion that carries enormous potential to divide America even more than ever.

my reply to Bellator-Christi on Jesus' level of knowledge

This is my reply to an article at BellatorChristi.com by Sherene Khouri entitled



The Knowledge of Jesus
May 6, 2022

See here.


Some skeptics and even Christians present the following question regarding the knowledge of Jesus. “If Jesus is God, why he did not know when he would return?” According to Mattew 24:36, Jesus seems not to know the hour and the day of his coming. “But concerning that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father only” (Matthew 24:36).[1] This idea is also echoed in Mark 13:32 “But concerning that day or that hour, no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.” The superficial reading of the text might show that Jesus does not know the time of His coming because the Father has not disclosed it; however, this understanding is problematic for those who claim Jesus is God. 
But even inerrantist Christian scholars admit Mark 13:32 was difficult even for Matthew and Luke to accept:
The difficulty of the statement can be seen in the fact that many manuscripts of Matt 24:36 and a few of Mark omit the statement and that Luke omits the verse altogether. It is also possible that Matthew himself omitted the statement, as he often did in the case of difficult statements in Mark, and that later scribes added it in order to harmonize Matthew with Mark. Inasmuch as Matthew was more highly regarded and more frequently used than Mark in the medieval church, however, Mark usually was harmonized to Matthew rather than vice versa.
Brooks, J. A. (2001, c1991). Vol. 23Mark (electronic e.). Logos Library System; The New American Commentary (Page 217). Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.
The point is that if even spiritually alive apostles and their immediate followers could be so bothered by Mark 13:32 as to consider it best to get rid of it, then skeptics are justified to view Mark 13:32 as heretical.  Or will you admit that Luke thought less of Mark than you do?

Khouri continues:
This article argues that Jesus does know about the timing because He presented many details about that day, but it is the type of knowledge that should not be announced.
But Jesus in Mark 13:32 classified the character of his not knowing as on par with all other human beings and angels also not knowing this same factoid. At least in the case of all other human beings, their not knowing such a thing has nothing to do with desire to keep such a date secret, but only because they are genuinely ignorant. So skeptics can be reasonable to argue that the basis for Jesus not knowing such a thing was the same basis upon which he also declared that no other human beings knew such a thing…both classes were simply limited in how much information they had access to.

The Divine Knowledge
The divine knowledge in the Christian worldview includes past, middle, and future knowledge. God knows everything that had happened, would have happened, and will happen.
Here are the questions I posted to this article.  They had to be brief because Bellator-Christi unabashadly admits it will reject replies that are too comprehensive or ask too many questions (i.e., smart skeptics who specialize in counter-apologetics are not allowed to fight back with everything they have at their disposal):
How long do you recommend skeptics to study the differences between Christian scholars on the subject of exhaustive divine knowledge and open-theism, before we reach the point at which we can be reasonable to start drawing conclusions as to which camp is more “biblical”?

Or must we be spiritually alive before we can beneficially distinguish orthodoxy from heresy?

And what will god do to protect these inquiring skeptics from going to hell while they remain within this transitory “I’m-not-a-believer-but-I’m-still-researching-Christianity” phase?

Khouri continues:
However, divine knowledge is not always announced, and at some times it is announced in expected and unexpected ways (through humans or miracles).
I'm not seeing the relevance.  Jesus clearly asserted that God possessed a bit of factual knowledge of the future that Jesus himself equally clearly denied was possessed by the "Son".  God's ability to refrain from announcing what's in his foreknowledge is irrelevant.

Khouri continues:
There are some places in the Bible where the superficial reading of the text implies that God is requesting information or seeking to learn something about the person or the situation. For instance, in Genesis 3:8-11, after the fall of Adam and Eve, God asks Adam “where are you?” as if God does not know where Adam is. Later in the text, God asks Adam “Who told you that you were naked? Have you eaten of the tree of which I commanded you not to eat?”
And the conservative Christian view says those stories were originally told by illiterate Hebrews from 2,000 b.c. or even earlier, when Hebrew theology was far less sophisticated than it is today.  The conservative Christian wants to "reconcile" bible statements about God's apparent ignorance with other bible statements about God's full knowledge, all in the name of having a theologically consistent book that seems to be a prerequisite for rationalizing one's view that the bible is "god's word".

But the more objective approach is to ask what theological position was held by the original authors of such stories.  Any dipshit lawyer can "reconcile" any two statements, especially if they occur, in the case of the bible, hundreds of years apart.  People back then did not speak in such comprehensive terms to as to preclude all possible harmonization scenarios that some inerrantist might propose.  And yet most inerrantists stupidly think that because a harmonization scenario is merely possible, then skeptics have lost the bible-contradiction debate.  LOL

Khouri continues:
God’s question might be understood as if God does not know that Adam ate from the tree, and He is making sense of Adam’s disappearance. But a deeper look into the text reveals that God is not asking Adam about his location but getting him to confess what he has done. In other words, God asking a question is not done to acquire extra knowledge (because He does not know), but to have human beings confess their sins. 
Fallacy of single cause.  There is nothing in the Genesis texts you cited requiring that there must only be a single cause for God's statements asking where Adam was.  And there is no logical contradiction between God not knowing where Adam was, and God's wanting Adam to confess a sin.  But regardless, all you are doing here is pushing the classical theist understanding and saying literally nothing about the Christian theologians who adopt "open theism" or process theology and therefore think these are cases of God being genuinely ignorant.  They are not impressed with the inerrantist who points to other bible verses and then screams that god cannot contradict himself.

So then, what?  If you say Christian open theists aren't truly born again, well, you can't really know that, and the vast majority of conservatives, including the late Walter Martin, would say the presence of heresy in a Christian's theological understanding isn't sufficient by itself to justify placing them outside salvation.  Skeptics would be reasonable to agree with the majority of conservative Christians that at the end of the day, you don't go to hell for heresy, but for having a heart that is not right with god.  So you don't get anywhere with the skeptic who objects using open theist scholars, by saying those kind of Christians are just wolves in sheep's clothing.

So then, what?  How can we take seriously the conservative viewpoint that certain genuinely born again Christians persistently misunderstand the voice of the Holy Spirit, and despite their salvation and sincerity, espouse heresy?   Skeptics are justified to conclude either a) there is "god" guiding anybody's bible interpretation, that's why so many "born-again" people disagree in how to interpret the bible, or b) God wants some authentically born-again Christians to misinterpret the bible, which then automatically excuses and justifies their "heresy".

The point being that you've done a rather sad job of pretending that the "correct" interpretation of the divine-knowledge statements in Genesis is the one you espouse.  For all you know, authors with different theological perspectives wrote the various stories in Genesis, and a later editor came along and did an imperfect job of making the viewpoints look more harmonious than they really were.

Gee, how many Christian scholars accept the documentary hypothesis?  Or did I forget that you will just discount the significance of any Christian scholar who happens to disagree with your viewpoint?

Khouri continues:
A similar example happens when God wrestles with Jacob in Genesis 32:24-30. God asks Jacob “what is your name?” Does God not know what Jacob’s name is? Of course, He knows, but the answer lies in verse 28 when He says, “Your name shall no longer be called Jacob, but Israel, for you have striven with God and with men, and have prevailed.” God does not ask this question because He does not know the answer, but because He wanted to declare himself to Jacob. In verse 30, Jacob says, “I have seen God face to face, and yet my life has been delivered.” Jacob knew right away after this incident that he was wrestling with God. This is all to say that God does not acquire extra knowledge, but He knows everything. The superficial reading of the text might give the wrong impression about the knowledge of God.
I'm sorry, but you have done literally nothing to show that the classical theist interpretation arises from the text itself.  Yes, it is "god".  Yes, Jacob knew at some point he wrestled with "god".  Nothing abut this expresses or implies that the open-theist interpretation of that story is false or unreasonable.  And to the ancient unsophisticated mind, a man's wrestling with "god" would suggest god might have limitations.  Then again, nothing about bible interpretation affects anything in a skeptic's daily life if they don't let it, so what the bible "really" teaches is for all practical purposes, a pointless trifle of academia. We may as well be debating whether the Trojan War every happened. Big fucking deal.

Khouri continues:
The Different Types of Knowledge
Not all knowledge about a topic is equal or the same. According to the Dictionary of World Philosophy, there are three types of knowledge: a) Factual knowledge: it can also be called propositional knowledge. It is the knowledge of facts or a set of propositions that provides information. b) Procedural knowledge: this knowledge is practical. It is acquired through education, learning, and practice. It is expressed by “how to” clauses—a person knows how to ride his bicycle.[2] c) Knowledge by acquaintance, which is the knowledge of people, places, and things.[3] For instance, Susan knows that Alyssa is a musician (the propositional knowledge) is different from Suan knowing Alyssa because she is her sister (personal knowledge).
But Jesus said the knowledge that he didn't have was missing from other human beings, and only the Father had it.  So once again, because the other human beings' ignorance of Jesus' date of second coming was due to simple ignorance, we are reasonable, even if not infallible, to assume that Jesus made the comparison because he thought his own ignorance of the same thing was in the same class.

Your reconciliation scenario is also ridiculous, since it would rationalize away any two contradictory statements somebody made about their knowledge.  If a witness at the scene of the crime said "I don't know the suspect" but then later confessed "I knew the suspect before he committed the crime", your "apologetic" would enable the witness to "reconcile" this contradiction, and the police would be forced to accept it. Sorry, life doesn't work that way.

Khouri continues:
Jesus said to the Jews who believed in Him, “If you abide in my word, you are truly my disciples, and you will know the truth, and the truth will set you free” (John 8:31-32). The Jews were not appreciative of what Jesus said because they thought that they knew the truth. The truth to them is God, and they know the name of God and His commandments. They consider themselves the children of Abraham and free men who were never slaves. However, Jesus was instructing them to abide in the word not in a propositional way, but in a practical way. He was not emphasizing the propositional knowledge that they have, but the procedural knowledge they should acquire lest they followed the propositional knowledge. Jesus knew that they are the children of Abraham, and they were never slaves, but He meant those who make sin are slaves to sin. They are not free because they know God. They are slaves because they commit sin. Those who know God propositionally are still slaves to sin until their knowledge is manifested practically.
You are now contradicting other parts of the bible, such as Romans 3:9-10, where Paul includes his spiritually born-again self among those who are detestable because of their association with sin.

And Christians disagree over what exactly Paul meant in Romans 7 in confessing himself to be a contradictory person captive both to sin and to his better spiritual judgment.  You aren't going to resolve that disagreement to the point of "showing" that skeptics are "accountable" to "know" that their distrust of Paul is "wrong".
Additionally, the Bible reveals two types of divine knowledge: what is announced and what is not announced. God in His provision chooses to declare some of the world’s secrets, He leaves other information for human beings to discover on their own, and He announces other data expecting human beings to react to it. As Moses states, “The secret things belong to the LORD our God, but the things that are revealed belong to us and to our children forever, that we may do all the words of this law” (Deut 26:26). This is to say that there is secret information that God chose not to declare and other knowledge that God revealed.
I don't see the point:  we are dealing with Jesus' confession of ignorance.  Knowledge that God might choose to keep secret  has nothing to do with it, except in the sense that Jesus was kept ignorant of it no less than the angels and the rest of humanity.
 In real life, I remember an incident that happened to me, which illustrates the non-announced type of knowledge. When I was in graduate school taking a biblical language class, I asked the professor during the exam review will this question be on the exam and she said, “I don’t know.” Of course, the professor knew what questions are on the test, but she could not tell me what those questions are. It is not the type of knowledge that should be announced.
We don't know enough about this interaction to pretend that it is "clear" that the professor meant something other than genuine generic ignorance.  her creation of the test doesn't mean she knew, at the point you asked the question, whether that particular question would appear on the test.  And normally, when a person says "I don't know", they mean it in the same way it would be taken in a court of law, as a denial of factual knowledge.
Jesus’s Knowledge about the Last Day
Jesus knows everything because the Father has told Him. Jesus states, “All things have been handed over to me by my Father, and no one knows who the Son is except the Father, or who the Father is except the Son and anyone to whom the Son chooses to reveal him” (Luke 10:22).
Luke also omitted Mark 13:32.  You can scream all you wish that even most NT scholars are "stupid" for adopting Markan Priority and the two-source hypothesis, but you aren't going to demonstrate this stupidity to such a degree as to render spiritually dead skeptic "accountable" to "know" that this most popular solution to the Synoptic problem is "wrong".  Thus skeptics are reasonable, even if not infallible, to believe Luke copied off of Mark, but didn't copy out Mark 13:32 because Luke felt the statement was either heretical or reasonably capable of an interpretation that would support what Luke thought to be heresy.  

Feel free to say that Luke was stupid to think that the statement in Mark 13:32 could reasonably be interpreted to support low-Christology.
 Jesus knows the nature and the will of the Father. This factual knowledge was given to Him by the Father Himself.
Your leaning so heavily on other parts of the bible to establish a basis for "refuting" the skeptical view of Jesus' knowledge indicates you are writing primarily for a Christian audience.  To that extent, your article threatens nothing in the skeptical view.
Certain Type of Knowledge Jesus Declared
There are several examples in the Gospels where Jesus claims not to have knowledge about the last day, but the context reveals that He does know. Referring to the day of judgment, Jesus says, “On that day many will say to me, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and do many mighty works in your name?’ And then will I declare to them, ‘I never knew you; depart from me, you workers of lawlessness’” (Matt 7:22-23). Jesus knows what will happen on the day of judgment. He explains what will happen to certain people. Many people will claim to be His followers, but He will say to them that He never knew them. The phrase, “I never knew you” is an example of personal knowledge, whereas the claims about these people confessing their knowledge and belief in Jesus is propositional knowledge. Jesus presents that He has factual knowledge about the last day, but what He does not know is the personal knowledge of some people who will be raised on that day.
I'm sorry, Matthew 7 does not express or imply that Jesus is ignorant about the "personal knowledge of some people who will be raised on that day."

"I never knew you" is not a denial of factual knowledge, since under your conservative hermeneutic of scripture interprets scripture, "know" in the bible often means to have particular or intimate knowledge of a person that most others do not have.  Jesus apparently claimed knowledge that the people he would cast away were "workers of lawlessness", so he was apparently claiming  to know exactly who they were, and his "I never knew you" is the same as the man who tells his adulterous wife "you are no wife of mine".
On the same eschatological occasion, Jesus gives the parable of the 10 virgins. The five virgins who left the wedding to buy more oil because theirs was about to finish, were cast out of the marriage feast. Jesus tells them, “Truly, I say to you, I do not know you” (Matt 25:1-13). This is another incident where Jesus gives propositional knowledge about the last day (the marriage feast), but He claims not to know some people with personal knowledge.
Well, you think Jesus is God, and you think God knows all factually true propositions, so how do YOU explain that God manifest in human flesh had lacked personal knowledge of some people?

And don't conservatives have a rule of thumb that says you shouldn't attempt to derive theology from the parables of Jesus?
There is an example in the Gospels where Jesus pretends not to know certain information, but the context shows that He does know. When Jesus speaks with the Samaritan woman and tells her to call her husband, the woman answered Him, “I have no husband.” Jesus said to her, “You are right in saying, ‘I have no husband’; for you have had five husbands, and the one you now have is not your husband.” (John 4:16-18). Jesus knows that the woman is not married, and she is living an adulterous life. Jesus did not deceive the woman by giving her false information, but He presented her with a different kind of information in order to see how she would react. 
Why would Jesus need to see how she would react?  Did he lack that bit of future knowledge that the classical theist god allegedly had?
This incident shows that Jesus knew (propositional knowledge and personal knowledge) but He pretended not to know because of a particular purpose. It was His way of declaring His divinity to a sinful woman and waiting for her response.

 Only a conservative Christian would dare trifle that a man can desire to falsely convince others he is ignorant and yet the man can still be said to have been "honest" in such endeavor.

Certain Type of Knowledge Jesus Concealed
Jesus teaches His disciples to be ready, watchful, and attentive to the last day because they did not know the precise time of His return. He instructs His disciple not to marvel about the last day (John 5:28-29). Apostle Paul reminds his audience that “the day of the Lord will come like a thief in the night” (1Thess 5:2). The same idea is repeated by Peter and John (Rev 3:3 & 2 Peter 3:10). If Jesus was ignorant about the end times, how could He be so specific in giving so many details? 
Maybe for the same reason that you think biblical authors could know such details while still being ignorant of other related matters?  Sure, that doesn't give you a Jesus who is truly "god", but that's your problem.

And once again, you are bouncing all around the bible, acting as if skeptics should consider themselves blown away by your creating your presuppositional foundation by simply throwing together lots of bible verses the way Jehovah's Witnesses do.  Sorry, it ain't working.
The information about the last day lies within the realm of divine knowledge. Since the Bible is clear that the day of the Lord will be revealed at that moment, it is reasonable to think that the exact timing of that day is not meant to be revealed. Jesus tells His disciples, “It is not for you to know times or seasons that the Father has fixed by his own authority (Acts 1:7). He also told His disciples who were asking questions concerning judgment that “I still have many things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now” (John 16:12). This knowledge belongs to the Father, it is not revealed yet, and it might not be revealed in the near future because people cannot bear it. People are expected to be wise servants while watching for the Master’s return.
That does not help explain why god manifest in the flesh confessed ignorance about his own future doings.
Jesus’s knowledge about the hour and the day is not factual knowledge but is related to the knowledge that cannot be declared right now. 
No, in Mark 13:32 Jesus did not say his hearers were not allowed to know when he would return, he confessed that even the "Son" didn't know.  Jesus' ignorance of such a thing is going to hurt your classical-theist view, whether or not the ignorance arose from God refusing to "declare" it.
There will be a time in the future when Jesus Himself will announce and execute his coming. 
How long should skeptics study the differences Christian Preterists have with non-Preterist Christians, before we can be reasonable to start drawing conclusions as to who is right and who is wrong?

Or is that a stupid question light of the fact that skeptics are spiritually dead, while you are forced to admit that spiritually alive people cannot come to agreement on the meaning of such biblical data?
He tells the disciples, “I have said these things to you in figures of speech. The hour is coming when I will no longer speak to you in figures of speech but will tell you plainly about the Father” (John 16:25). It is the role of the Son to fulfill that day and hour. Jesus declared repeatedly that He will not act independently of the Father (Matt 26:42; John 8:28; John 12: 49-50). Jesus speaks and acts only as the Father has directed and instructed Him. 
So do you recommend that skeptics research the differences between Unitarians, Binitarians, Jesus-only, and Trinitarians?  

How have spiritually alive people fared when they debated each other on such things?

How well do you expect spiritually dead people to care when they inquire into such theological disagreements?

Aren't skeptics reasonably justified to say Christian confusion and disagreement about Jesus is so rampant that the skeptics who can justify interest in this crap are merely those who naturally like pointless intellectual sophistry?
Conclusion
Jesus as shown in different places in the Gospels uses the word “to know” in two different senses. On the one hand, He teaches that the disciples cannot, should not, and will not “know” the precise day or hour of His coming. On the other hand, Jesus “not knowing” belongs to His submission to the Father in regard to the timing of His return. It is not His call to determine or to announce the day of His coming (this role belongs to the Father). It is not the business of the disciples to know, nor the role of the Son to declare. It is not that Jesus’s human nature that limited His knowledge, but that His role and function in the Trinity is not to declare timing.

How urgent is the threat of hell to the skeptic who decides to stop thinking about repentance and instead focus on researching your article?  Are there any second chances in the afterworld for unbelievers who were sincerely seeking, but not yet born-again, at the time they met an untimely death?

Or should I conclude it doesn't matter since your answer will merely show that this is yet another among the thousands of biblical subjects that spiritually alive people disagree on?

Your effort to "justify" Jesus' confession of ignorance in Mark 13:32 falls flat on its face. The context indicates it was also human beings didn't know, and in such context, that means Jesus' own ignorance was equally generic and literal, thus this bible verse is a legitimate attack on the classical theist view that Jesus is "god" by nature.  That's going to be reasonable regardless of your trifles based upon statements elsewhere in the bible, a hermeneutical move that does nothing to impose an intellectual obligation upon a skeptic who doesn't even believe in biblical inerrancy/consistency.

Tuesday, April 12, 2022

my reply to Ty Nienke on Jesus' resurrection

Ty Nienke tries to argue the resurrection case in his YouTube video here.

I was apparently the first to reply, and I replied as follows:

Barry Jones

Not sure why it would matter whether Jesus rose from the dead:  making Jesus relevant to modern people requires you to do something biblical authors never do:  make the NT "apply to" modern day people. 

I don't see how any Christian has any hope of showing the bible's applicability to modern people, to such a degree that it would render today's skeptics foolish.  The bible doesn't talk about itself and doesn't talk about what people living 2,000 years after the authors wrote are supposed to do.  Yet today's Christians fallaciously put just as much stock in a non-biblical claim like "the bible applies to us today" no less than they put stock in clear biblical claims such as John 3:16 (!?) 

A skeptic could cite Christianity's in-house debates about dispensationalism, to justify saying not even spiritually alive people can be reasonably sure whether anything in the NT "applies to" people today, thus they are being unreasonable to 'expect' spiritually dead unbelievers to recognize biblical "truth". 

If Jesus' miracles are supposed to mean he was approved of by God, why don't today's apologists stay consistent with that reasoning, and insist that if miracles happen in any modern church, god is similarly manifesting his approval of that church's particular theology?  Does the bible provide criteria for knowing when the working of a true miracle signals god's approval of the miracle-worker's theological viewpoint, and when the working of a true miracle leaves that question unanswered? 

I overcome the "early" nature of the 1st Corinthians 15 "creed" with  Mark 3:21 and John 7:5, which under the conservative view are facts that occurred before Jesus died and thus are far earlier than the Corinthians "creed", supra.  According to Mark 3:21 and John 7:5, Jesus was incapable of working genuinely supernatural miracles.  If your brother or son was running around town raising people from the dead, what are the odds that your disagreements with him about points of theology might blind you to the obvious implications of God's working through him in such an undeniable way? 

No, if Jesus' family found him decidedly unconvincing, it wasn't because he dashed their dreams of a military messiah, it was more likely because they checked out his miracle claims and found them false, and therefore began to view him the way most people today view Benny Hinn and other faith-healers....a very popular charismatic charlatan. 

And why did the original eyewitnesses to the empty tomb expect it to continue being sealed three days after Jesus died?  Can we be reasonable to deduce that these women must not have found Jesus' prior miracles very convincing, and therefore didn't put a lot of stock in his prior predictions that he would rise after three days' being in the grave?  

Skepticism of Jesus' resurrection is very reasonable, and in actual daily life, reasonableness always trumps  accuracy.  

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Thursday, April 7, 2022

My request to Dr. R Scott Smith, a Christian scholar/apologist working at Biola University


On March 7, I read the following written by R Scott Smith, PhD, c/o Biola University, at his blog https://rscottsmithphd.com:
Summary of the Survey
We have surveyed major ethical options for what our core morals are, including:
Are they how we happen to talk?
Are they physical things? Perhaps evolutionary products?
Are they ways of behaving or moving our bodies?
Are they results of a utilitarian calculus?
Are they emotive utterances?
Are they particulars? (nominalism)

But, at least since Hobbes, I’ve argued that none of the views can preserve our core morals of murder and rape being wrong, and love and justice being good.
What Are These Core Morals?

For one, they seem to be objectively real. They seem to exist independently of us as moral principles and values. They also simply seem to be intrinsically valid, and not due to anything else (like, the consequences). That is, they seem to have an essential moral nature. Moreover, they cannot be just physical things or particulars, as we’ve seen. Instead, they seem to be a “one-in-many” – each one is one principle (or value), yet it can have many instances/examples. In sum, they seem to be Platonic-like universals.

That raises many questions, however. Earlier, I remarked that Christine Korsgaard rightly observed that it’s hard to see how such things could have anything to do with us. While she thinks people are physical, it still applies if we are a body-soul unity. Why should these abstract objects have anything to do with us? On Plato’s view, they exist in a heavenly realm of values as brute features of reality.

What makes justice and love character qualities that should be present in us? Why is it inappropriate morally for us to murder or rape? These are normative qualities, not merely descriptive. As we’ve seen, it is hard to see how we can get the moral ought from what is descriptively the case. Yet, that problem could be overcome if humans have an essential nature that makes these moral values appropriate for them, and these acts inappropriate.

Earlier, I argued that the soul as our essential nature provides a sound explanation for how we can be the identical person through change. Body-soul dualists affirm that the soul is our essential nature, and it sets the boundary conditions for what is appropriate for us. For instance, it is inappropriate for us to grow a cat’s tail due to our nature, and it is inappropriate for us to murder due to our nature.

We also saw another reason for the soul’s existence. We do in fact think and form beliefs, yet these have intentionality, which I argued is best understood as something immaterial and having an essence. Now, it is hard to conceive how a physical brain could interact with something immaterial, but that problem does not seem to exist for an immaterial soul/mind.

Moreover, why should we feel guilt and shame when we break these core morals? That doesn’t make sense if these morals are just abstract objects that are immaterial and not located in space and time. Instead, we seem to have such responses in the presence of persons we have wronged morally. Also, retributive justice doesn’t make sense if we repay an abstract principle or value. But it would make sense if a person should be repaid.

There is another explanation we have seen for the grounding of these core morals: they are grounded in God. That helps solve the question of why we feel shame when we break one of these morals. But, that also raises questions, such as: are they good because God commands them, or does God command them because they are good (i.e., the Euthyphro dilemma)? Also, which God would this be?

I will start to tackle these in the next essay. But, first, there is another option for properties besides universals (realism) and nominalism. It is divine conceptualism; properties just are God’s concepts. Justice in us is God’s concept. Yet, concepts have intentionality, but virtues do not. When we think about people being just, we don’t mean they have a concept of justice (though they could), but that they have that virtue present in them. So, offhand, divine conceptualism seems to trade on a confusion.
For Further Reading

R. Scott Smith, In Search of Moral Knowledge, ch. 12
So on the same day I sent him the following message through his blog "contact me" page https://rscottsmithphd.com/contact-us/
Hello,

I would like to ask you a few questions raised in my mind after I read your "Making Sense of Morality: Where Do We Go from Here?", located at https://rscottsmithphd.com, which I read March 7, 2022.

I never seem to get a straight answer from Turek or others who try to argue that the common human repugnance toward murder and rape is more reasonably accounted for by positing "god put his laws into our hearts" than by any naturalistic explanatory mechanism.

I can ask you the questions by email or we can discuss at your blog, or wherever.
Barry

A screenshot of that message is:










Friday, February 25, 2022

my challenge to Than Christopoulos and Bram Rawlings on gospel authorship



 Christopoulos and Rawlings uploaded a video promoting traditional gospel authorship here.

My response was:


Barry Jones0 seconds ago

What would be unreasonable about the hypothesis that says Matthew and the author of Acts give inconsistent views about the risen Christ? Acts 1:3 says Jesus appeared to the apostles over a period of 40 days teaching things concerning the kingdom of God. Even assuming "40" is a figure of speech, it is obviously reasonable to assume the author wanted the reader to assume this risen Christ probably took longer than 15 seconds to teach about the kingdom of God. Matthew's version of the words of the risen Christ on the kingdom of God is so short, the entire thing could be uttered in 15 seconds. See Matthew 28:18-20. What exactly is "unreasonable" with the hypothesis that says it is highly unlikely that if Matthew believed the risen Christ's speech lasted over a period of days, or longer than 15 seconds, Matthew would most probably have given us more than a 15-second snippet? After all, wasn't Matthew interested in quoting the historical Jesus copiously? So can't we be reasonable to expect he'd also wish to copiously quote the risen Christ? What's "copious" about a 15-second snippet? Wasn't Matthew interested in the "kingdom of God" sayings of the historical Jesus? So can't we be reasonable to expect him to copiously quote many of the risen Christ's "kingdom of god" sayings? is it anywhere near "likely" that Matthew believed the risen Christ said anything more than what Matthew himself provides in ch. 28? How could you establish this with a skeptic who views the longer speeches of the risen Christ in Luke and John as fictional embellishment? Should I purchase Lydia McGrew's "Eye of the Beholder" and realize that the gospel of John is historically reliable? In other words, would you bid a spiritually dead atheist to have a more correct understanding of the gospel of John than all those spiritually alive Christian scholars Lydia criticizes in that book? Is it anywhere near "likely" that Matthew expected his originally intended readers to harmonize his account with Acts 1?
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Wednesday, February 2, 2022

my reply to Bellator Christi on Jesus' words

 This is my reply to Brian G. Chilton's article at


(what are the odds that a Christain might say "no"?)

As anyone who has followed apologetics knows, the resurrection was transformative for the earliest Christians."

----------Not really.  Despite the risen Christ telling them to evangelize Gentiles, they shove that responsibility off onto Paul's shoulders, and prefer to limit their own ministries to Jews. Galatians 2:9.

"Those who witnessed the resurrection were willing to give their lives for what they knew to be true."

--------Not really, when Jesus predicted what kind of death Peter would die, Jesus specified that it would be something Peter did NOT want to do.  John 21:18-19.  Paul fled death threats (Acts 9:24-25).  The original apostles continued being "afraid" of Paul until by completely naturalistic means they discovered his conversion (Acts 9:26).

Boldly transformed men willing to risk death?  I think not.

"If it were not for the resurrection, it is highly doubtful that the early church would have worshiped Jesus as they did."

----------I don't understand how the disciples' own working of resurrection miracles by command of Jesus (Matthew 10:8) could have been less transformative than their seeing Jesus alive after he was crucified.  So the story saying the disciples were downtrodden after Jesus died, is suspicious.

"While the resurrection solidified and verified the ministry of Jesus"

------No, his pre-crucifixion miracles were equally as dazzling, so again, there is the problem of the gospel authors lying in portraying the disciples as dolts and depressed after Jesus died.  If my brother suddenly started doing the miracles of Jesus and telling me God wanted him to die by gunshot next week, I'd have no trouble taking his word for it.

"And he also extensively trained them about an already-not-yet kingdom.["

--------Except for Preterists, who say the second coming was fully realized and fulfilled within the natural lifetimes of the original apostles...because of statements that plainly indicate as much....like Matthew 16:28.  Jesus did not reward every man according to his works during his transfiguration on the mountain (Matthew 17), so what Jesus was talking about in 16:28 cannot be the Transfiguration.  The point is that skeptics have the perfect right, in light of most Christians being end-time freaks, to consider NT eschatology to be one big fat exercise in futility, and accordingly refuse to believe God is ever going to "come back".

"1] The Christology of Jesus impacted the disciples so much that they preserved his teachings, even before the resurrection, and passed them along after the ministry of Jesus was vindicated by the resurrection. As Paul Barnett points out, “It was [C]hristology that gave birth to Christianity, not the reverse. Furthermore, Christ gave birth to [C]hristology. The chronology drives this conclusion.”[2]"

----------Jesus' explicit claims to being God would never have been deemed by the Synoptic authors as unworthy of posterity, and they were writing before John wrote.  The fact that alternative theories to answer this exist,  might justify your disagreement with me on the point, but they do no increase the probability that the skeptical hypothesis (i.e., that John is fictionalized theology wrapped around a core of historical fact) is false.  Reasonableness for another person is not determined by what's reasonable for YOU.

"If the Christological teachings of Jesus gave rise to Christian doctrine—because as Richard Bauckham notes, the “earliest Christology was already in nuce the highest Christology”[3]

-------no, there is testimony even earlier than Paul's creeds.  See Mark 3:21 and John 7:5.  How high is the Christology in "Jesus cannot do real miracles" and "we are not convinced his miracles are genuinely supernatural"?

"then should it not behoove modern believers to pay close attention to what Jesus said?

-----no it shouldn't, as too many Trinitarian conservative Christians and their scholars have been analyzing the gospels to death 10 times over, yet the continue to disagree about what it meant.  The author of Revelation says his words are very serious, yet today's conservatives relegate most of his assertions to "eschatology" which they have classified as "non-essential" and thus permissible for a Christian to disagree with that the Spirit says to the churches.  The smart Christian doesn't worry about what Jesus said, because the smart person knows that the record of it from 2,000 years ago has proven many time over to be fatally ambiguous, and thus not only is attempted interpretation of Jesus' statements an exercise in futility, it has the potential to go over the line and draw them into heresy.  The average Christian who goes to church more for the obvious social benefits and less for figuring out what Jesus meant, it the smartest type of Christian.

"The teachings of Jesus not only impacted the early believers’ Christology, but they paid close attention to other aspects of the didactic of Jesus, as well. Thus, the modern believer should take the ethical, historical, and theological/philosophical teachings of Jesus into consideration as they live out, research, and build a biblical worldview."

-------And in the process, discover that there are no hard and fast answers to the interpretive questions that bear directly upon doctrine...even though they are supposed to believe that Jesus lives in their hearts, and thus would presumably, but never actually does, alert them when they've arrived at a false conclusion.  Why did God want all people to recognize rape as wrong, but he didn't enable us to instinctively know which doctrines are true?  Is God a liberal?  Does he care about our heart more than he cares about propositional doctrine?

"The Ethical Teachings of Jesus"

If Jesus is YHWH, then it was Jesus who required his OT Hebrews to burn adolescent girls to death (Leviticus 21:9).  The disappearance of the Mosaic theocracy is never predicted in the writings of Moses, and therefore, its disappearance indicates Judaism "evolves" over time....like any religion.  The notion that God always knew the 1st covenant wasn't supposed to last, is a false doctrine taught by NT authors and Paul.

"The Sermon on the Mount is just as controversial today as it was when Jesus first uttered it."

------Meaning the modern-day Christian should be satisfied with any interpretation they arrive at after they have considered the literary context and social context, otherwise, words that are supposed to 'guide' are fatally ambiguous even for like-minded Christians who attend the same church and cannot agree on simple things like whether the SOM is even intended for modern believers.

"Jesus taught such things as showing mercy unto others (Matt. 5:7), having a purity of the heart (Matt. 5:8), and maintaining one’s role as a peacemaker (Matt. 5:9). He taught that believers were to stand for the truth by remaining the salt of the earth (Matt. 5:13) while also maintaining a compassionate heart by being the light of the world (Matt. 5:14). He also taught that angry bitterness and lust made one as guilty as committing murder or adultery (Matt. 5:21–30).

------He also wanted people to burn little girls to death.  If Jesus was God, read Leviticus 21:7.  It is absolutely foolish to think the Pharisees who attacked Jesus' teachings, would not have asked something like "if you are claiming to be god, when why aren't you commanding us to slaughter our enemies the way you allegedly did back in the days of Moses and Joshua?"  So we can be reasonable to assume he was asked questions like that, yet the gospel authors do themselves a favor by refusing to report such things.

"One of the most forgotten teachings of Jesus in modern times is his call to love one’s enemies and pray for those who may mistreat a person (Matt. 5:43–48). If Jesus rose from the dead, and he did, then the believer must take seriously the ethical commitments to which he calls his disciples to live. If one chooses to reject his moral standards, then one must ask, “Whose standards am I following—Jesus’s or my own?”

--------The plight of the believer is unavoidable, because Christians have always disagreed on what exactly Jesus meant with his ethical teachings, yes, even on things Jesus allegedly got specific on, such as divorce.

Jesus was also giving an ethical teaching when saying a man leave his gift at the altar and first be reconciled to his brother, and THEN offer the gift at the altar.  Does that :"apply" to modern day unbelievers?  Should their struggle to be righteous be so intense that they put forth effort to find that altar or build a new one, just so they can obey Jesus?  How do you know the destruction by Titus in 70 a.d. was god's "obvious" way of relieving modern-day believers from this requirement?  Isn't that merely your own interpretation?  Isn't the true interpretation guided by how the originally intended hearers would likely have interpreted it?  

"The Historical Teachings of Jesus

Here again, it is common for one to dismiss the teachings of Jesus when it comes to uncomfortable historical matters. Granted, the issue with Jesus mentioning Abiathar being the high priest when Ahimelech held the position in Mark 2:26 poses some issues. But one finds good reasons to think that something in the transmission from Aramaic to Greek could have been left off as the teaching/text was being translated. James Brooks avers that the best explanation to describe the hiccup is that the Aramaic word abba (meaning father) was originally added to Abiathar (abba-Abiathar) in the original teaching. Thus, the teaching would say “he entered the house of God in the time of abba-Abiathar” (Mark 2:26), which would be correct as Ahimelech was the father of Abiathar.[4]

-----Nice to know you agree with skeptics about how easily the NT text could be corrupted, and of course, 

your argument necessarily means yo are talking about corruptions so early that the existing mss. do not reflect 

the change....thus a theory of significant textual change taking place during the first 100 years after the originals, is well within reasonable limits.  God's concern to preserve the originals inerrant, but not the copies, is an absurd theory that imposes not

the least bit of intellectual obligation upon any non-Christian or skeptic.


"Nonetheless, if Jesus is truly the divine Son of God—and the resurrection confirmed that he was"

---------No, Deuteronomy 18 teaches that if a prophet does a genuinely supernatural miracle, you STILL

don't know whether he is approved or disapproved by God.  

"—then, it stands to reason that Jesus would know perfectly whether such people existed when he referred to a historical Adam and Eve (implied in Matt. 19:4–6), Abraham and the early patriarchs (Matt. 22:32), and even Noah (Matt. 24:37)."

------but in truth the texts tell us less about what Jesus thought, and more about what the gospel authors believed.  John's gospel is a perfect illustration of how easily some early Christians could modify or invent doctrinally significant sayings and 

put them in the mouth of Jesus.  The same thing is reasonably deduced from the Markan priority and literary interdependence solutions to the Synoptic Problem.  

" In our age of skepticism, it is easy to cast doubt on these figures of the past. But at the end of it all, we must ask ourselves whether we can take Jesus at his word."

---------That only makes sense to believers.  It does nothing to render skepticism unreasonable.

"Finally, one will ask whether a person can trust what Jesus says about the world, the kingdom of God, heaven and hell, and the direction of history. While there are a plethora of viewpoints concerning eschatology,"

----------Does God the Holy Spirit want authentically born again Christians disagreeing with each other on how to interpret the allegedly urgent serious teachings found in the book of Revelation?  Is there a possibility that God also withholds truth from even sincerely seeking authentically born again Christians?  If so, what would be unreasonable to say that such a god is merely "toying" with us and doesn't deserve for us to grovel at his feet?  If I'm sincerely seeking truth, and God isn't revealing it despite his knowing much better than anybody what I need to convince me, I'm not thinking that kind of god is the least bit serious.  And if God has sovereign reasons for not opening the mind of Jehovah Witness to "truth" until they've been in that cult for 30 years, then YOU are wrong for telling JW's they must leave.  No, God might want some of them to stay deceived, in which case their leaving by their own freewill might mean they are leaving before God is done deceiving them.  Compare 2nd Thess. 2:11 with Jeremiah 4:10 and 20:7.  If we have enough freewill to disobey god, then we have enough freewill to give up false theology quicker than god wants us to.  Yet, Christian preaching and evangelism make no sense in light of 

God's sovereignty.  You will tell anybody and everybody that God wants them to know the truth, when in fact you don't have the first clue whether God has singled out any prospective convert for deception.

"the arrow of history is undebatable when it comes to the teachings of Jesus. In his Olivet Discourse (Matt. 24–25), Jesus warned that such things as wars, false prophets, famines,[5] earthquakes, and various disasters would come."

----------All of which can be proven to have been fulfilled right around the a.d. 70 time that most conservative Christian trinitarian scholars date the Synoptics.  Your rushing headlong to make these statements of Jesus apply to events in 2022 and afterward is unreasonable.  Do you also look at the sky, expecting Jesus to gallop down from heaven on a white horse?  (!?)

"Yet he noted that such things only serve as labor pains, indicating that the coming of the Son of Man was nigh (Matt. 24:8). Much more could be added to this eschatologically rich message. However, the most important aspect of his message is that despite the troubles that would come, God would move the arrow of history toward a time when he delivers the people of God and recreates the heavens and the earth. The kingdom of God would reach its ultimate and complete actualization when the “Son of Man comes in his glory, and all the angels with him, then he will sit on his glorious throne” (Matt. 25:31).[6] Some may call this fanciful thinking. But this came from one who actually defeated death itself."

----------And because not even equally sincerely seeking authentically born again Trinitarian Christians can agree with each other on how to interpret such eschatological statements, you are forced to conclude 1) god wants Christians to be doctrinally divided, or 2) the people in the debate who are wrong are living in sin or have unconfessed sin, or aren't praying hard enough, etc, etc or 3) there is no god, which is why Christians debate the meaning of the bible about as often as equally American politicians and lawyers debate the meaning of the US Constitution.  These are purely naturalistic documents created so long ago that only very general principles can be gleaned from them, and the "right" interpretation is fatally elusive for wholly non-supernatural reasons.

"Many things are difficult to believe. It is difficult for me to wrap my mind around the fact that light travels at 186,000 miles a second."

-------The difference being that the speed of light is empirically demonstrable...the "right" interpretation of Jesus' words isn't. 

"Likewise, some of the things mentioned in this article may be like the speed of light—very difficult to fathom. However, at the end of the day, we must all ask ourselves who we trust. Who is trustworthy?

----------Our own senses, which tell us that the whole business of trying to interpret Jesus "correctly" is fraught peril, making it unworthy of the risks of trying to figure it out...which may lead to creating of, or joining to, psychologically damaging cults.  There's lots of good and lots of bad in a gun, so until you can show that somebody "should" play with the gun, it's probably best that they don't.  So go ahead:  show that the words of Jesus "apply" to today's people.  But remember that the Apocrypha survived historical persecution too.  And don't commit the ad populum fallacy.

"Who is a reliable witness?"

---------That's assuming the witnesses can be identified, but most Christian Trinitarian scholars think the 4 gospels are combinations of some authentically apostolic content added to and modified by any number of later copyists.  Aunt Martha's original affidavit in Court should be worthy to consider...but if lawyers could prove that it has the same number and type of authorship, authenticity and textual problems that the canonical gospels have, then a person is a fool to pretend that this is still "Martha's" affidavit...and they are reasonable to simply dismiss it as incapable of reasonable certain resolution.

"For me, the thing that led me back to Christianity after a time of doubt was the amazing amount of evidence supporting the literal resurrection of Jesus of Nazareth."

----------And it doesn't bother you that the earliest testimony from his own family members was that he couldn't do real miracles (Mark 3:21, 6:1-4, John 7:5)?  We skeptics have testimony about Jesus' miracle abilities that is even earlier than that 1st Corinthians 15 "creed" that you all hang your hats on.

What Jesus was like before he died, counts far more than what anonymous gospels say about his "resurrection".

Benny Hinn's having thousands of followers means nothing, because his own family members call him a con-artist.  See what I mean?

"If Jesus truly raised from the dead and defeated death, then that is One whose opinion is worth trusting."

---------No, Jesus' resurrection doesn't prove he "defeated" death, and Deut. 18 will not support your rushing immediately from "he did a miracle!" to "he must be approved by God!"

"Some may call it naïve. Well and good. When you are able to conquer death, then let’s talk."

----------When you can show Jesus conquered death, then let's talk.

========================================

From: Brian Chilton <----->
Date: Wed, Feb 2, 2022 at 5:15 PM
Subject: Bellator Christi Comment
To: barryjoneswhat------

Due to the length of your comment and the multiple areas you discuss, we will not be able to publish your comment as it currently stands. Try to engage only one or two areas in which you find disagreement. Use the following link as a guide: https://bellatorchristi.com/website-rules-regarding-comments-and-replies/

Thank you for your input. We look forward to hearing from you soon.

Blessings,

Brian G. Chilton, PhD Candidate, MDiv
Author of "Layman's Manual on Christian Apologetics"
Founder of Bellator Christi Ministries

=================================

Brian responded, and I replied:

I am scholarly and thorough in my replies.  Twitter panders to fools who think posting their two cents worth is a legitimate way to 'discuss' something.  I will have none of it.  I require myself to respond point by point.  Anything less only invites the common "you didn't answer his point!" sneer.  You take the risk of dealing with lengthy replies if you continue to contend that skeptics are unreasonable to reject the gospel.  Some of us have scholarly knowledge of the subject.  

"Barry, thank you for your comment. You bring up two interesting rebuttals. For the first, you note, “Despite the risen Christ telling them [the disciples] to evangelize Gentiles, they shove that responsibility off onto Paul.” You must be referring to the issues Paul faced when evangelizing Gentile nations, particularly in the first few decades.  

 We must first realize that despite their transformation, God was doing things with the church that they never anticipated."

---------How could that be consistent with your belief in NT inerrancy?  That they anticipated from the very beginning a need to evangelize Gentiles is what your are forced to conclude from Matthew 28:19-20.  That they were taught by the risen Christ exactly how to go about promoting the "kingdom of God" is supported by Acts 1:3.  That they actually went around boldly exercising their evangelism powers seems clear from Acts 2 through Acts 5.  These texts will not allow your purely naturalistic theory that says the disciples weren't done getting "transformed" until the passing of the earlier period.  No, it is within the earlier period that your NT says God successfully "transformed" them.  Feel free to arguethat it was just enough transformation to make them "bold", but no quite enough to make them "evangelize Gentiles", but such a trifle would hardly impose the slightest intellectual obligation on a skeptic.

"For many of the disciples, they grew in a culture where Jews did not converse with Gentiles."  Very few, if any, would have worshiped with Gentiles."

------In other words, despite the disciples seeing the risen Christ (Matthew 28:19-20), despite his instructing them in operations of the Gentile gospel (Id) and despite their special divine inspiration at the very earliest stage (John 20:22, Acts 2), this STILL did not completely divest them of their prior incorrect ethical/racial leanings?  If that is the case, then what makes you so sure that the bible authors being divinely "inspired", is some sort of assurance that they could not error in what they wrote?   Under y our theory, apostles who are "inspired" by God can still manifest their wrongful understanding in everything they do, which would thus include writing.

"So, God was doing something new in the history of the church, blending Jews and Gentiles together."

------No, Jesus evangelized Gentiles before he had disciples (Matthew 4:15) and after the 12 were called (12:18).  We are not unreasonable to draw the inference that if these references are historically accurate, then the disciples likely conversed with the pre-crucifixion Jesus many times, given a) his openness to Gentiles and b) the Jewish culture's general antagonism toward Gentiles.  We may also assume that Jesus, not being stupid, answered obvious questions about the matter before he was crucified, knowing that he would be asking the disciples after his resurrection to expand evangelism to Gentiles.  The apologist's theory of keeping it all a secret until the very last nanosecond might help "reconcile" the apparently contradictory NT data on the subject, but nothing about such theory imposes the least bit of intellectual obligation upon a non-Christian. 

Your definition of "transformed" was "Those who witnessed the resurrection were willing to give their lives for what they knew to be true".  But in light of my reply, it appears that you now wish to qualify what you meant, so as to leave room in their transformed minds to allow a significant bit of their prior incorrect beliefs about Jewish-Gentile relations to remain, so that you can then use such remaining prejudices to 'explain' why they didn't quite "get it" at the early stage.  No dice:  If the Holy Spirit emboldened Peter to mouth-off so confidently to Jews in Acts 2 at the early stage, we are not unreasonable to draw the inference that he would have also mouthed-off equally confidently toward Gentiles at the earliest stage.  So that if he didn't, we are reasonable to assume this is because the mightily transformative grace of God had zero to do with any evangelism he did in the early period.(i.e., Act 2 is just fiction).

"Furthermore, a good deal of historical evidence can be found that either explicitly or implicitly notes that the disciples journeyed to Gentile nations to evangelize."

--------But you are merely setting a naturalistic basis for the Gentile expansion.  Why didn't the shock of seeing the risen Christ (Acts 1:3) and their being filled with the Holy Spirit 40 days later at Pentecost (Acts 2) completely divest their minds of their previously held prejudices?  Maybe the skeptics are correct, and the degree of "transformation' they experienced upon "seeing" the risen Christ actually wasn't quite as eventful as most Christian apologists insist? That could be supported from Matthew 28:17.

"While the accounts differ on their level of authenticity, it can be said with certainty that both Peter and Paul traveled to Rome where they both died for their faith.

------Then you and I have a fundamental disagreement about historiography.  In my view, held also by Mike Licona and other Christians, there is no such thing as "certainty" in the conclusions that are limited to inferences drawn from ancient historical testimony.  That a lot of church fathers believed Peter went off to preach in Rome doesn't convince me anymore than most of the church thinking Gospel of Hebrews was authentic Matthew, convinces you of who authored that particular gospel.

"A good deal of evidence suggests that Thomas traveled to Madras, India to evangelize, where he also was executed. Peter was crucified; Paul was beheaded; and Thomas was speared to death."

----------irrelevant.  The unwillingness of the disciples IN THE EARLY STAGES to evangelize Gentles is a problem, and your naturalistic theory that they were whole-hearted Jews having difficulty giving up long cherished racial and ethical prejudices might be true, but is not consistent with the type of transformation boasted of in Mathew 28:19, and its divinely inspired implementation AT THE EARLY STAGE,  in Acts 2.  Did God take away their fears of the Jews WITHOUT taking away their views about Gentiles (!?)

"This brings us to your second objection. You argue that because Peter did not want to die and that Paul fled death threats that this, in some way, diminishes their testimony of witnessing the risen Jesus."

---------No, I'm saying their unwillingness to face death for their faith means you are wrong when you say "Those who witnessed the resurrection were willing to give their lives for what they knew to be true".  In nearly every case we can examine, this is false.  Matthew and John are often touted in patristic sources as dying by natural means, not execution.  That's enough to ustify today's people to be skeptical that any truth in ancient martyr-stories is to obfuscated by legend and edification to make those accounts the least bit "useful".

"This could not be farther from the truth. Paul willingly traveled to Jerusalem, even though numerous people warned him not to do so, because of the Spirit leading him."

------That doesn't answer why he wasn't willing to face King Aretus and the men seeking his death earlier in his ministry.

"Additionally, Peter, John, and the disciples stand boldly against the same Sanhedrin that had condemned Jesus to death just a few days after Pentecost."

--------But Jesus still said Peter wouldn't be willing to die for his faith.  Nothing else in the bible can erase that problematic "prediction", and of course, if he's unwilling to die for his faith, then he isn't a "martyr".  You can open up that possibility by saying Jesus got it wrong, but if you don't want to select that option, then Peter did not go to his death willingly.  You have Jesus' word on it.

"This would have happened in the very same year that Jesus was crucified, died, and resurrected."

-----your point is moot unless and until you somehow get rid of Jesus' prediction that Peter would go to his death unwillingly.

"Furthermore, not one of them recanted their belief that they had seen the risen Jesus."

---------But we can reasonably infer recantation  from Matthew 28:17, where "doubt" in Greek is the same word that characterizes a FAILING faith in Matthew 14:31. That is, some of the disciples had an attitude of failing faith when they allegedly "saw" the risen Christ.

"This point is not something that just believers accept. Rather, the consensus of historical scholarship–believer and unbeliever alike–accept this as a historical fact."

-------The NT was written for the obvious purpose of edification.  Skeptics have a perfect explanation for why we don't find the NT ever claiming any apostle recanted their faith.

But regardless, your argument from "no recantation" is overthrown by the argument from "his own family didn't believe his miracles were genuinely supernatural."  See Mark 3:21, 6:1-4, John 6:66 and 7:5.

What's worse?  James the brother of Jesus recanting his faith?  Or James the brother of Jesus thinking Jesus' miracles before the crucifixion were fake?

"Thus, the early disciples were most certainly bold men who were willing to risk death for what they knew to be true–that is, that Jesus of Nazareth had risen from the dead."

-------You have not refuted my argument "Paul fled death threats (Acts 9:24-25)".  His fleeing certainly sounds more consistent with a fear of dying for his faith, and sounds totally inconsistent with your theory that he was willing to face death for his faith.

========================

From: Brian Chilton <---------->
Date: Thu, Feb 3, 2022 at 6:58 PM
Subject: Bellator Christi Comment
To: barryjoneswhat-------


Due to the length of your comment and the multiple areas you discuss, we will not be able to publish your comment as it currently stands. Try to engage only one or two areas in which you find disagreement. Use the following link as a guide: https://bellatorchristi.com/website-rules-regarding-comments-and-replies/

Thank you for your input. We look forward to hearing from you soon.

Blessings,


Brian G. Chilton, Ph.D. Candidate, M.Div.
Author of The Layman's Manual on Christian Apologetics
Founder of Bellator Christi Ministries

=======================

So I shortened my reply:

"For the first, you note, “Despite the risen Christ telling them [the disciples] to evangelize Gentiles, they shove that responsibility off onto Paul.” You must be referring to the issues Paul faced when evangelizing Gentile nations, particularly in the first few decades. We must first realize that despite their transformation, God was doing things with the church that they never anticipated. For many of the disciples, they grew in a culture where Jews did not converse with Gentiles."

----------But if, at the earliest possible stage, the Holy Spirit's indwelling caused the disciples to overcome their fear of reprisal from Jews (i.e., Acts 2), then why didn't this same divine indwelling ALSO cause the disciples to overcome the social conditioning about Jews/Gentiles that the disciples "grew in"? 

Also, I need to know exactly what you believe about skepticism toward the gospel: Do you say all people of today who reject what you say is the true gospel. are unreasonable?

Or do you allow that sometimes, a modern-day skeptic can be reasonable to reject what you believe to be the true gospel?

==============================



 

my reply to Roger Pearse on Canaanite child sacrifice

 Roger Pearse gives the ancient historical sources for the ancient Canaanite practice of child sacrifice here:

https://www.roger-pearse.com/weblog/2012/05/31/sacrifices-of-children-at-carthage-the-sources/?replytocom=1840887#respond

I posted this reply today, February 2, 2022, but it did not immediately appear as posted, and no message was left indicating the post was awaiting approval or moderation, so I'm cross-posting my reply here, just in case there was a "boo-boo" :)

Roger, what do you think of apologists like Frank Turek who make the specific claim that the Canaanites watched their babies "sizzle to death" in the flames?

That's his answer to the question of why the bible-god treated the Canaanites more harshly.

Apparently, he wants to make the bible-god appear justified to impose harsher treatment upon Canaanites.   And indeed, if the Canaanites were 'worse' sinners than most pagans in OT days, then fine.

Unfortunately, not only do none of the ancient historical sources on Canaanite child sacrifice express or imply that the kids were still alive when put in the fire, Plutarch's comment about cutting the throat of the child makes it reasonable to assume that the fire was used solely for cremation, i.e., the child died before its body was put in the fire.

In other words, Frank Turek and other apologists like him are not giving a reasonable answer, so the question of why God treated the Canaanites more harshly than other pagans, remains without reasonable answer, except of course the "god's mysterious ways" excuse that could be employed by any obvious heretic.

In other words, the skeptical contention that the god of the OT was arbitrarily cruel, has not been debunked, but continues to stay above water.  "Burn their children in the fire" does not necessarily require that the kids were still alive when placed in the flames, yet most Christians read "still alive when placed into the flames" into every biblical reference to this child-sacrifice ritual.  This is otherwise known as eisegesis.

But the bible-god's own willingness to burn babies to death is clear from Leviticus 21:9.  If any such priest-daughter existed, she could very well have become pregnant, and discovery of her sin could possibly be delayed for several months, in which case carrying out that law would mean killing her unborn child by fire too, and not just herself.

And if she is having sex with some guy in her priest-father's house, this is likely because she didn't have her own house to live in, implying she wasn't married, implying she was younger than 12, implying that she was still a "child" in the opinion of most modern Christians.

Jason Engwer doesn't appreciate the strong justification for skepticism found in John 7:5

Bart Ehrman, like thousands of other skeptics, uses Mark 3:21 and John 7:5 to argue that Jesus' virgin birth (VB) is fiction.  Jason Eng...