Showing posts with label naturalism. Show all posts
Showing posts with label naturalism. Show all posts

Sunday, May 29, 2022

my reply to BellatorChristi on the evil and atheism

This is my reply to a BellatorChristi article by Brian Chilton entitled


------First, I posted a short reply at his website, but Chilton responded to my initial reply there while I was composing this blog piece.  In his response, Brian did two things demonstrating his genuine fright of getting steamrolled in debate:

  • He declined my debate challenge by hiding behind the dishonest excuse that he thinks I'm not paying attention to his points, when in fact he has a posting rule that rejects replies if they are more than a few lines, and 
  • He removed the reply-function from the article that I replied to, i.e., Chilton has engineered things to make sure that his criticisms cannot be exposed on his own website. When Chilton has responded, God has spoken, and that shall be the end of the debate.

For reasons that will become clearer herein, Chilton is being dishonest.  He does not fear that I won't be "paying attention".  He fears that a counter-apologist like me would most likely corner him and expose the fallacies of his "apologetics".  

I now reply to the article.  Chilton says:

Another week, another tragedy. This time, we heard of the tragic school shooting in Uvalde, Texas. Like most of you, I am troubled by the incessant and increasing reports of violence across our nation and world.

You shouldn't be.  You assume everything god does is morally good, and in Deuteronomy 32:39 "god" claims personal responsibility for all murders and death:

 39 'See now that I, I am He, And there is no god besides Me; It is I who put to death and give life. I have wounded and it is I who heal, And there is no one who can deliver from My hand. (Deut. 32:39 NAU)

If Job is correct that God has assigned each person a specific number of days to live, the only way that makes sense is if he was intimately involved in decreeing the time and manner of their death:

 5 "Since his days are determined, The number of his months is with You; And his limits You have set so that he cannot pass. (Job 14:5 NAU)

Chilton continues: 

For many folks, these senseless acts of violence leave them with a tinge of doubt. Why is it that a benevolent God would permit such acts to occur?

Perhaps they ask that question because they are using modern western democracy, instead of the bible, to define exactly what it means for god to be "benevolent".  I think it pointless and deceptive to call god "benevolent", because the only way we can conceptualize of it is by human analogy, and in the human world, "benevolence" cannot exist if the human in question also decrees the murder of children.  Back to your "mysterious ways of god" refuge.

This question enters the philosophical and theological sphere known as theodicy. Theodicy ponders the goodness of God’s providence in light of acts of evil.
Bellator Christi Ministries has addressed the problem of theodicy in considerable detail on both the website (https://bellatorchristi.com) and the Bellator Christi Podcast.

Just like Christian apologists have been doing for centuries.  And yet why god allows evil continues to bother Christians today no less than it did in the first century.  Congratulations on your demonstrable problem-solving progress. 

While we could go back through those issues, I think a more pressing issue is at hand. By their statements online, I have observed that some people have contemplated the thought of hitching their wagon to another theology in light of such senseless acts of evil. This is not a good idea, for reasons I hope to show.

You won't be showing any such thing.   

For the remainder of this article, I would like to pose four different theological and philosophical options that cover the problem of theodicy, and I will show that Christianity holds the best answer for why a benevolent God permits evil acts.

Then you are contradicting your own bible.  Your god allegedly thought there were times when pre-teen girls should be burned to death (Leviticus 21:9).  "benevolence" is not an option, it is a pipe dream that tries to use John 3:16 as the lens through which to interpret divine atrocities. 

The article examines the following parameters: 1) either God exists, or he doesn’t; 2) humans have free will, or they don’t; 3) God is benevolent, vengeful, or both; 4) there is ultimate justice, or there isn’t.

Option A: Atheism—No God, Questionable Freedom, No Justice

When acts of violence occur, it is strange that many begin to gravitate toward the position of atheism.

Not any stranger than the raped daughter who gravitates away from her father, who had both ability and opportunity to prevent the rape, but knowingly chose rather to just stand there watching and doing nothing. 

Because many believe that a loving, benevolent God would never allow evil acts to occur, it is naturally assumed that such a God does not exist. Most problematically for the atheist is that ultimate justice cannot be found. If there is no God, then there is no day of reckoning, no scales that are measured, and no ultimate meaning to anything.

That's a fallacious appeal to emotion.  Longing for justice is an emotion. 

One may very well assume that good and evil are just figments of our imagination.

No, good and evil are real, but they do not transcend the human level.  They are merely words we use to describe events that we feel promote or inhibit survival/thriving.  You don't have a corner on the language market:  the atheist is not doing anything illogical or inconsistent in saying the boy who killed the kids at the recent Texas school massacre was "evil"...because the atheist doesn't define "evil" in the broad ultimate sense you do.  The boy inhibited the survival and thriving of many children and adults in those shootings, and he did not do so for reasons current American law will recognize.  That is PLENTY to justify the atheist in characterizing the shootings as "evil".  There is no logical requirement that evil always be attached to the devil, or to "god's" opinion of things.

Even though atheism is a popular go-to theory,

So is "Christianity".  Did you have a point? 

the worldview only exacerbates the problem when it is taken to its logical end. If you follow the route of atheism, you will find that not only do you not find an answer to why evil things occur,

Strawman fallacy:  "atheism" does not express or imply answers to why evil things happen.  Your argument is going to basically be that by denying god's existence, nothing matters. Sorry friend, but atheism doesn't logically necessitate nihilism.  But yes, you might sound convincing to crowds of Jesus-followers who have no training in philosophy, who are thus incapable of discerning where and how your inferences go wrong. 

but you will also find that you have no standard by which to gauge anything evil in the first place

Wrong again:  you don't have a corner on the language-market: "evil' is not required by definition to linked to god or the devil.  The dictionary will confirm this:


There is nothing illogical about the atheist who characterizes the recent Texas school shooting as "evil" because it brought "sorrow, trouble or destruction".  

as well as no final standard of justice.

According to Genesis 6:6, God sometimes berates himself for his prior bad decisions, so your bible doesn't even justify the assumption that god's decisions about matters are "final".  The originally intended pre-scientific illiterate goat-herder audience would never have understood this to be an "anthropomorphism".  Modern Christians only do that out of a prior commitment to bible unity or inerrancy.  God being stupid would probably not harmonize with other bible statements about god's great wisdom.  But the more objective hermeneutic is the concern about how the originally intended audiences would likely have understood the passage.

In a world that God does not exist, then morality does not exist.

That is false, you have not even gotten near making even a prima facie case that "god" is necessary to explain "morality".  I suspect that is the case because of how stupid the proposition is.  Morality is simply the word we use to characterize situations where we opine that somebody "should" or "shouldn't" do something.  Does Chilton seriously believe that if the atheist puts a bandage on his child's scratched knee, the atheist cannot justify this level of concern and is merely borrowing Christian capital? 

If you have no God, then you also have no ultimate justice.

So?  The only "justice' that is the least bit demonstrable is the human legal system.   

Life then becomes nothing more than pitiless indifference.

First, so?  I find most people to be pitilessly indifferent toward most evil that takes place outside their daily lives.  Even you.  Could you be doing more charity than you currently do?  What's unreasonable about saying that the reason you don't do as much good as you could with your resources and time, is because there are limits to how caring you are about other people?  

Second, you are now fallaciously appealing to just those readers who feel sorry for all people who have ever suffered, which means you are fallaciously pretending that it is only the people who feel such sorrow, who "count" in this argument.  You are wrong.  Throughout human history, plenty of human beings have been pitilessly indifferent toward other human beings.  Are YOU doing all the charity that you could possibly do?  If no, why shouldn't we chalk this up to your own pitiless indifference?

Third, naturalism provides a perfectly reasonable explanation for altruism without god.  As mammals, we naturally care about those closest to us.  As a civilized society, we naturally feel sorry for people further away who are criminally deprived of life, liberty or property.  For a start, see Sense and Goodness Without God: A Defense of Metaphysical Naturalism (AuthorHouse, 2005) by Richard Carrier.

Fourth, you are only hurting your own case by trying to prove that some type of belief results in pitiless indifference.  Your own god allegedly commanded his people to have no compassion on others (Deuteronomy 19:21), God has no pity on orphans despite it not being their fault that their parents were heretics (Isaiah 9:17); God has no pity on children suffering the ravages of war (Ezekiel  5:11 ff, 8:18, 9:5-6), and he tortured a baby for seven days with a horrible disease despite the obvious fact that such infant was not guilty of the sins in question (2nd Samuel 12:15-18).

Option B: Universalism—Benevolent God, No Justice

Universalists hold that everyone, no matter their theological moorings or ethical behavior, will go to heaven in the end. Admittedly, while this is one heresy that I wish were true

But if morality comes from God, then maybe the reason you wish universalism to be true is beacuse the Holy Spirit is telling your heart that the parts of the bible about an angry god injuring people are just fictions?

, the aspect of justice is highly questionable in this worldview. True, it could be that the ethically immoral go through a time of purgatory before going to heaven. However, what if the person does not desire to go to heaven? Sounds strange, but it is not beyond the scope of possibility.

In Luke 23:34, Jesus actually forgives some humans who neither express nor imply any remorse or intention to repent.

Consider the lyrics of AC/DC’s Highway to Hell.

Do you want your readers to investigate your sources?  Does a true Christian encourage others to consider anything Satan has to say? 

The authors of the song appear to want nothing to do with heaven.

Because even humans on this earth eventually found Jesus too disinteresting to keep communicating with (John 6:66).  No reason to think it will be any different in heaven...where God often authorizes evil spirits to make people tell lies (1st Kings 22:19-23). 

Furthermore, is there a reckoning for evil acts in universalism?

No, because universalism preaches an absolutely unconditional divine forgiveness.  And God is quite capable of getting rid of human sin without needing it to be "reckoned".  See 2nd Samuel 12:13.  David's sin was taken away, he was spared from the mandatory Mosaic death penalty for adultery and murder, and yet nothing in the context expresses or implies David would have to endure any priestly sacerdotal rite.  God no more "needs" to punish sin than you "need" to wear blue socks. 

Though universalism is better than atheism, it does not seem to have the power necessary to deal with evil acts.

The god of univeresalism deals with a rapist by forgiving him immdiately, fully, and unconditionally.  No need to "deal with" evil acts.

Additionally, it does not emphasize the great disdain that God has for sin. Quoting Deuteronomy 32:35–36, the writer of Hebrews notes, “For we know the one who has said, ‘Vengeance belongs to me; I will repay,’ and again, ‘The Lord will judge his people.’ It is a terrifying thing to fall into the hands of the living God” (Heb. 10:30).

Ah, so you are NOT arguing to skeptics, but only to those who hold your fundamentalist assumptions about god and the bible.  No wonder your article was about as shallow as a Pentecostal sermon.

Option C: Fatalism—Vengeful God, No Choice

Fatalism is the belief that human beings hold no free will and, thereby, no responsibility.

It's also the belief of those Trinitarian bible believers known as 5-Point Calvinists, at least according to those who criticize Calvinism.

Fatalism may come in the form of naturalistic atheism, deism, or some forms of Christianity. However, fatalism does not answer the problem of evil.

If a man steals a car, the answer to this "evil" is the human legal system. The notion that we yearn for a higher form of justice against this thief, is just stupid. 

For the atheistic varieties of fatalism, the worldview does not resolve the problem of evil actions for the reasons mentioned in Option A.

There is nothing unreasonable in the atheist viewing the human legal system as the highest possible form of justice.

For deistic and theistic versions of fatalism, everything comes about by the pre-planned will of God with no human responsibility. This is not to be compared with divine foreknowledge of the willing acts of free agents.

On the contrary, God's infallible foreknowledge of future human choices makes those choices inevitable.  The only possible ways to refute a deductive syllogism are a) refute the first premise, b) refute the second premise, c) show that the conclusion didn't logically follow, or d) show that the syllogism is entirely hypothetical and inapplicable to the real world.  Keeping those in mind, a deductive syllogism proves that infallible divine foreknowledge leaves no logically possible room for freewill:

Premise 1:  Anything God infallibly foreknows will happen, is incapable of failing.

Premise 2:  God infallibly foreknow that Salvador Ramos would choose to kill children.

Conclusion:  Therefore Salvador Ramos' choice to kill children was incapable of failing.

You cannot refute Premise 1, it is simply assuming God's foreknowledge is infallible, which is a major Christian doctrine.  And "incapable of failing" is merely the dictionary definition of "infallible"

You cannot refute Premise 2, since as a doctrinally conservative Christian, you think that premise is true.

You cannot show the conclusion didn't logically follow, as it is constructed of information in both premises and doesn't add to or subtract from that information.

Hence, those Christians who subscribe to God's infallible divine foreknowledge, but who still insist we are "free" to "do otherwise", are illogical, and likely because their bible is that illogical. 

Rather, this view holds that God pre-planned everything to come about as it has. The problem with this mentality is self-evident. God is presumed to be the source of evil in this worldview as human beings do not have the capacity to choose other than their pre-designed nature and choices are dictated. Therefore, the ethical and moral standard of God becomes suspect. Of the three positions given thus far, this position holds a slightly higher rank than atheism but less than universalism.

I don't see your point, you own bible makes god the author of evil.  Read Deuteronomy 28:15-63.  Don't miss v. 63, which says God will take just as much "delight" to inflict rape, parental cannibalism and other atrocities, as he takes in granting prosperity.

Option D: Christianity—Benevolent, Just God Overseeing a World of Free Agents
Thankfully, a fourth option exists. The classic Christian worldview holds the best answer to the problem of evil. The position is as follows: A benevolent, just God created and oversees a world of human free agents and will hold each person accountable for their deeds in the afterlife. For this position to be true, let’s examine four truths the Scripture teaches.

Thanks again for clarifying that you are NOT trying to convince anybody except church folk.

Truth #1: God is loving and just.
While space does not permit us to afford a full examination of God’s goodness and just nature, let us consider a few passages as a case study.

It doesn't make any sense to say God is loving and just.  In the real world, the only reason we say somebody is good is because we find they have conformed to a standard of morality outside of themselves.  We never say somebody is good merely because they themselves declare themselves to be good.  But in the case of "God", there is no standard outside of god to which god is subject.  Therefore, when you talk about god being 'good', you need to make clear that you don't determine this in the same way you determine whether a human being is good.  But if you provide that much clarity, than you will have a very suspect doctrine:  god's goodness derives from nothing but his own statements about his own nature.  LOL.

First, God’s benevolence is shown in his great love for humanity.

Yeah, like when he directly  tortured an infant for 7 days (2nd Samuel 12:15-18).

Like when God specifies that King Saul must masscre "infants and children" (1st Samuel 15:2-3), the reason being nothing more than their descendants warring against Saul's descendants back during the Exodus about 400 years prior. In other words, kill your neighbor if his great-great-great-great grandfather had murdered your great-great-great-great grandfather. 

The apostle John states, “Love consists in this: not that we loved God, but that he loved us and sent his Son to be the atoning sacrifice for our sins” (1 Jn. 4:10).

The atonement of Jesus is an absurd doctrine that no amount of repeating 1st Cor. 1:18 is going to fix.  If the entire person of Christ became sin (2nd Cor. 5:21), and the whole person of Christ necessarily includes his divine nature, then necessarily his divine nature also became sin.  Be sure to run extra fast to "god's mysterious ways".  It's your get-out-of-jail-free card.

Furthermore, Paul writes, “For while we were still helpless, at the right time, Christ died for the ungodly … But God proves his own love for us in that while we were still sinners, Christ died for us” (Rom. 5:6, 8).

I just want you to know that when you quote the bible, the Holy Spirit testifies to my spirit that I need Jesus.  

Second, God is also holy and just. Job reflected on the holy nature of God as he said, “Indeed, it is true that God does not act wickedly and the Almighty does not pervert justice” (Job 34:12).

If God was holy and just when he created mankind, why did he later regret that particular decision (Genesis 6:6)?  

Because of God’s holy nature, he expects his people to act holy, as well.

That makes no sense:  Did God infallibly foreknow that Hitler would massacre the Jews?  if so, how could it be sensible to say God "expected" Hitler to refrain?  Does God "expect" us to surprise him by acting in a way contrary to his infallible foreknowledge?  

Do you infallibly foreknow that a 2 year old child cannot jump over the moon?  If so, could you still somehow seriously "expect" her to engage in that act anyway?  Of course not.

In Leviticus, God said, “Be holy because I, the Lord your God, am holy” (Lev. 19:2). Jesus furthers this thought, saying, “Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect” (Matt. 5:48).

I deny that the bible teaches theology consistently.  And you will never show that anything Jesus told anybody in the 1st century "applies to" modern day people.  That would require to venture outside the bible itself and comment about how the bible survived the ravages of history, but that evidence is not inspired by God.  So any argument that tries to apply biblical anything to modern day people, is necessarily far less authoritative than you think bible-based arguments are.

Truth #2: Human agents are free.
This topic can easily dive into some deep wells of philosophical and theological thought.

Translation:  equally authentically born-again Trinitarian Christians disagree on how to interpret biblical statements about the freewill of mankind.  And yet they want skeptics to believe God is tellilng them all the same theology, and they don't know why some of them are hearing god incorrectly.  LOL. 

Suffice to say, for now, the Bible suggests that human beings hold some degree of free agency. That is, human beings choose to act to at least some degree. God’s call on people to repent is sufficient to show the ability of people to freely act to at least some degree. Jesus called on people to repent, saying, “No, I tell you; but unless you repent, you will all perish as well” (Lk. 13:3). Peter picked up this theme and said, “Repent and be baptized, each of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit” (Acts 2:38).

A 5-Point Calvinist will call that "heresy".  And yet you think a spiritually dead skeptic should figure out which of you got the bible "right". LOL

Truth #3: God desires to save humanity.
God desires to save humanity from their sin and themselves.

Not everybody.  Romans 9:18-23.  And Calvinists assure me that the first agent to do the heart-hardening is god.  We reject the gospel because God wanted us to reject the gospel.  And yet you think a spiritually dead skeptic should figure out which of you got the bible "right". LOL 

Jesus lamented Jerusalem’s refusal to repent in Matthew 23:37.

Because the bible is inconsistent in its portrayal of how god is.

God expressed his desire to save people rather than to bring judgment in Ezekiel 18.

He also expressed "delight" to cause rape and parental cannibalism in Deuteronomy 28:63. 

The chapter ends with God lamenting, “For I take no pleasure in anyone’s death … so repent and live” (Ezek. 18:32). It is when a person and society turn from God that evil increases.

It's also when God sends an evil spirit from heaven that evil increases:

 19 Micaiah said, "Therefore, hear the word of the LORD. I saw the LORD sitting on His throne, and all the host of heaven standing by Him on His right and on His left.

 20 "The LORD said, 'Who will entice Ahab to go up and fall at Ramoth-gilead?' And one said this while another said that.

 21 "Then a spirit came forward and stood before the LORD and said, 'I will entice him.'

 22 "The LORD said to him, 'How?' And he said, 'I will go out and be a deceiving spirit in the mouth of all his prophets.' Then He said, 'You are to entice him and also prevail. Go and do so.'

 23 "Now therefore, behold, the LORD has put a deceiving spirit in the mouth of all these your prophets; and the LORD has proclaimed disaster against you." (1 Ki. 22:19-23 NAU)


Throughout the book of Judges, one finds an example of what happens as a nation further slips into depravity as they continue to reject the loving will of God.

Which is curious since you assume they had much better evidence for their god's existence than we have today.  They were descendants of the Exodus generation....and you think ancient Hebrew oral tradition "reliably" reported true history, right?

Truth #4: God holds each person accountable for their actions.

No, God can free somebody from responsibility for sin by simply waiving his magic wand.  God's law reqired David to be killed for adultery and murder, but God was capable of exempting David from this mandatory death penalty in 2nd Samuel 12:13.


Lastly, the Scripture teaches that God holds each person accountable for their actions. This is not only true for unbelievers, but it is also true for believers. Paul speaks on the Judgment Seat of Christ in 1 Corinthians 9:4–27; 2 Corinthians 5:10–11; and Romans 14:10. The writer of Hebrews adds, “And just as it is appointed for people to die once—and after this, judgment—so also Christ, having been offered only once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time, not to bear sin, but to bring salvation to those who are waiting for him” (Heb. 9:27–28). Thus, each person will have to give an account for their deeds.

Have fun trying to "prove" that any of that crap "applies to" any modern-day person.  That would require you to venture outside the bible itself, and make use of evidence that is not divinely inspired.  

Conclusion
Christianity holds the best answer for why a loving God allows evil deeds to occur.

Maybe that explains why so many Christians apostatize? 

Could he stop every evil act? Well, he could and sometimes has. But if God were to intervene in every act of evil, he would remove the free agency of humanity.

Then you necessarily admit that when cops chase down and capture a suspect, they are removing the free agency of the suspect.  Is it god's desire that today's police force criminal against their wills into jail?  If so, then your god does not respect human freewill as much as you pretend.

Remember that God allowed himself to become victimized by the depraved nature of humanity.

LOL. 

He allowed himself to be crucified on a cross at the hands of evil men to provide the ultimate good—a way for humanity to be reconciled to himself. This opened a pathway into an eternity with him.

He was stupid, since he could easily forgive those who do not seek it (Luke 23:34), he can exempt anybody from the otherwise mandatory penalty of the law without needing to "sacrifice" anything (2nd Samuel 12:13, if you claim god's torture and killing of David's baby was the sacrifice, then you believe YHWH is just as bad as the Canaanites, whom you credit with "child sacrifice").  God could force himself upon anti-Christian bigots and provide forceful evidence guaranteed to produce a change of mind (Acts 9, 22, 26, Paul's conversion).

Granted, the solution that Christianity offers does not always bring immediate gratification. We often want justice now for atrocious acts committed. If you find yourself in that situation, then rest assured that you are in good company. The prophet Habakkuk contemplated the same. Yet God answered the prophet much as he does us.

No, you think Habakkuk was "inspired by God" to write inerrantly.  You deny that any person today has that level of access to the divine intent. 

Justice is coming. God will weigh the actions of each person and will judge accordingly. But know this, only a covenant relationship with God through Christ will grant you access into his kingdom. Make sure that your heart is right with him. To allow anyone into heaven, God must extend grace rather than judgment. Personally, I am thankful for God’s loving grace. Nonetheless, evil will not win in the end. Instead, the love of God wins for eternity.

Then apparently you never read the last chapter of Revelation.  Evil is going to continue even after this alleged "day of "judgment":

 15 Outside are the dogs and the sorcerers and the immoral persons and the murderers and the idolaters, and everyone who loves and practices lying. (Rev. 22:15 NAU)

 

Here is my initial reply to that article:

I don’t understand why you think subjective morality is somehow defective or insufficient to explain morality. Your god is the most complex imaginable thing, assuring you that under Occam’s Razor he stays as the most unlikely candidate, since all non-god explanations are necessarily less complex than “god”.

I have blasted to bits many times in the past Frank Turek’s argument to god from morality, an argument you now imitate here when you pretend that atheism logically leads to pitiless indifference.

I don’t understand why you think getting pitiless indifference out of “atheism” is supposed to be some sort of rebuttal to atheism. Are you not aware of just exactly how pitilessly indifferent most educated adults are toward the plight of the less fortunate? One minute after the radio host speaks in hushed tone about the recent Texas school massacre, she is speaking all excitedly in congratulating some caller for solving a puzzle-game.

Furthermore, most people are hardwired by evolution against pitiless indifference, we are mammals, we by nature do have some care and concern for others like us, even if we are indifferent to unfairness we see happening elsewhere.

I sure wish you’d allow substantive reply, because allowing only minimal reply gives the reader the false impression that nobody is able to “refute” you comprehensively. I request a formal written debate with you at any location of your choosing.


Here is Chilton's response to my reply...which was a problem because with such response Chilton disabled the 'reply' function to make sure that his comments could not be rebutted in the place that rebuttal would be most effective (his own website):  I reply to those comments respectively:




Author
Brian Chilton
23 minutes ago

Reply to barry
Barry, evolution cannot account for anything unless it is guided by intelligence.

And then he disables the reply-function, as if his opinion were the end of the matter! 

If you logically follow the atheist line of thought, then it only stands to reason that nothing matters in a world where God does not exist.

No, purely naturalistic processes sufficiently account for altruism and the lack of nihilism among most atheists. 

No justice will be ultimately found.

And if people were not so mired in fallacious theology, they would not desire for a justice that transcends space and time...whatever the fuck that is supposed to mean. 

You may say, “That’s where we need to step in and provide justice.” Well and good. However, there are many crimes that go unpunished.

So?  Our hatred of the notion of guilty criminals not being caught doesn't imply there is a level of justice beyond the human level. 

Additionally, many innocent parties have been imprisoned for crimes they never committed. What of all the supremacists who unjustly lynched young black men in the streets in the late 1800s and early 1900s? Where is justice found for those poor souls?

They were denied justice.  How does that begin to express or imply they will endure some higher-than-human justice?  You are clearing employing the fallacy of appeal to emotion. 

Atheism offers nothing to account for morality and justice.

And fingernails offer nothing to account for stale taco shells.

Atheism is merely denial of, or lack of belief in, a god.  "Atheism" is not a word connoting any specific philosophy beyond the non-existence of gods.   Your not understanding how atheists could possibly care about anything is not a testament to the problems of atheism, but a testament to your own ignorance of how sufficiently naturalistic realities account for mammalian altruism.

It offers no sense of justice for shooters who cowardly take their own lives or who were executed in an exchange of fire with the authorities.

Neither does any philosophy that says God caused the shooter to commit the murders, like Deuteronomy 32:39. 

If evolution is your go-to response, then how can we trust anything we think as we are nothing more than molecules set in motion by chemical responses?

Well first, Christianity doesn't have a solution to that problem, because Christians disagree on how to interpret the bible, so that not even a very confident belief that "god is guiding me" constitutes the least bit of dependable justification to believe you have the "truth".  Too many fundamentalists have become liberals or atheists later in life, to pretend that the way you currently feel in your fundamentalist dogmatism is "truth".  How often do Christians find out that doctrines they held for decades, were false?

Second, you are fallaciously assuming without evidence that  "molecules set in motion by chemical responses" are insufficient to enable us to detect truth.  You would agree that bacteria and bugs lack soul and spirit, and are therefore purely physical creatures, and yet their purely chemical brains somehow enable them to detect truth sufficiently to prevent them from going extinct.  They can tell, even if only imperfectly, that danger is near.

Atheism has nothing to offer, except for deluding ourselves to think that we are our own gods and will never give an account to anyone but ourselves.

You are just preaching to the choir, this is not "argument". 

That, my friend, is what makes atheism so dangerous–not so much dangerous for society, but dangerous to those who delude themselves with such a notion.

You have not shown any "danger".  You have simply brandished your ignorance of the sufficiency of the naturalistic explanations.

Pertaining to the Occam’s Razor argument, I would argue the opposite. It is far simpler to envision a universe stemming from an uncaused Cause (being God) than a series of physical events occurring in the past.

But that doesn't explain anything, because "uncaused cause" and "God" are plagued by ceaseless hosts of philosophical defects.  In short, in the adult world, you cannot explain how the book got on the table by positing the existence of fairies. 

For a good scientific argument for the case for God, see Stephen C. Meyer’s book Return of the God Hypothesis.

I'm not seeing the relevance of atheism being false:  you have not, and never will, make a convincing case that there is any "danger" in atheism, nor will you make the case that anything in the bible "applies to" modern day people.  

I would happily debate you if you were willing to listen to the points that were being made. But as it stands right now, you have not shown that you are willing to listen to the other side. As such, an exercise of this nature would be futile, as both of us would simply be talking over the other.

You are obviously stupid and bigoted: this post shows that I have a habit of responding point by point.

Second, the only reason you think I wasn't willing to listen to the other side, is because of your dogshit posting rule that disallows criticial replies unless they are limited to just a few lines.

Your excuse for declining my debate challenge was transparently dishonest, and the real reason you won't debate me is because I've hit you in the past with arguments you haven't dealt with and cannot deal with in any sustained fashion. You are afraid that when your critic is allowed more than a few lines to criticize you, you won't be able to keep up.  Yes, most Christians in apologetics are infested by the sin of pride.  They wouldn't truthfully admit their ignorance and fright of debating if their lives depended on it.  You are no exception. 

Saturday, August 7, 2021

Notifying Frank Turek's admirers, once again

In the comment section for one of Turek's YouTube videos, I recently posted reminders to Turek and his followers that his arguments are pathetically weak: See here.


The plain text:
I have blasted Turek's reasoning to bits:  He has titled his book "Stealing from God: Why Atheists Need God to Make Their Case".  So I titled my rebuttal article "Stealing from Sense: Why Frank Turek Needs Atheism To Sell Books"
https://turchisrong.blogspot.com/2018/09/stealing-from-sense-why-frankn-turek.html

When Turek is asked why the bible has God commanding his people to slaughter the Canaanite children without mercy, he tries to make this divine atrocity appear more morally justified in the eyes of modern western democratic Americans by saying the Canaanites were horifically immoral , to the point of burning their children to death.  

Yes, Dr. Turek, burning a child alive is about as horrifically evil as one can get.  BUT...for several years I have publicly accused Turek of LYING about this, because 

a) none of the ancient historical sources which report on Canaanite child sacrifice specify that the kids were still alive when placed in the fire , thus Turek is mistaking his own faulty subjective inference for actual historical data, and 

b) at least one of the ancient historical sources telling us about Canaanite child-sacrifice explicitly state that the child was killed before being placed in the fire.  My article is entitled "Frank Turek's dishonesty concerning pagan child sacrifices"
https://turchisrong.blogspot.com/2017/10/frank-tureks-dishonesty-concerning.html

I've also challenged the popular notion held by Turek, Clay Jones and other apologists that the Canaanites engaged in bestiality.  See the above article.  See my more direct challenge to Clay Jones here:
https://turchisrong.blogspot.com/2017/10/apologist-clay-jones-fails-to-morally.html

If there is no evidence to support Turek's  contention that the Canaanites used fire to kill children and no evidence that Canaanites engaged in bestiality any nore than any other pagan nation, then Turek cannot justify the bible's requirement that the Hebrews treat the Canaanites more harshly than they treated other pagan nations. 

Turek has known for years about these challenges of mine, but for whatever reason,  he refuses to respond in any manner, and he refuses to debate me.  

So quit telling yourself that he is a "great apologist".   I welcome any Turek-supporter or Christian here to hit me with their most powerful arguments on any bible-topic.   Lord knows Turek won't do it,  so maybe one of his admirers can do it.

I'm also the first atheist to review Lydia McGrew's new book "The Eye of the Beholder: The Gospel of John as Historical Reportage" (Deward, 2021).  My rebuttal-review hit Lydia from an angle she never expected, and I prove all she ended up doing was support the skeptical contention that the biblical promises of divine guidance for authentically born-again Christians, are false.  Your purely naturalistic smarts are the only thing in existence that has any potetntial to protect you from misleading other Christians.
https://www.barnesandnoble.com/w/the-eye-of-the-beholder-lydia-mcgrew/1138856063

You might say that review proved to be most embarassing to Mrs. McGrew, because she touts herself as a christian philosopher who specializes in epistemology.  If anybody should have been on the lookout for where her arguments were leading, it was her.  Yet she appears not to have noticed how her own logic in that book powerfully supports the skeptical thesis that says biblical promises of divine help are nothing but hot air. 

Christian apologists are constantly raving about Dr. Craig Keener's two-volume "Miracles: 
The Credibility of the New Testament Accounts" (Baker Academic, 2011) as if it is supposed to be a "game-changer"  boosting the persuasiveness of Christianity by several orders of magnitude.   But for years I've had posted at my blog a direct challenge to Keener (which I had sent to his email to make sure he couldn't later pretend to have overlooked it) to provide me with the evidence supporting the one modern-day miracle which he thinks is the most impervious to falsification.  Not only does Keener speak Greek, he's also fluent in cricket-chirps:
https://turchisrong.blogspot.com/2017/12/my-questions-to-dr-craig-keener.html

I also take "triablogue" to task at my blog, and yes, they too get around my rebuttals by simply ignoring me.  Apostle Paul prohibited word-wrangling (2nd Timothy 2:14) and the bible presumes the use of "many words" will surely lead to transgression (Proverbs 10:19), and few modern Christians violate this biblical admonition more  than Triablogue's Jason Engwer, with his out-of-control obsessively compulsive need to fill up the universe with all of the atheism-rebuttals he thinks lurk within the Enfield Poltergeist scam.  If you thought Bill Clinton's "That depends on what the meaning of the word 'is'  is..." was the best example of absurd trifling, then apparently you know nothing about Jason Engwer or Triablogue.  

So please understand:  if you think Christian apologetics causes atheists to piss themselves with worry about being judged by some 'god'  in some afterlife, it's probably because you are refusing to take the pills your psychiatrist prescribed.  Are you going to follow your doctor's orders...or shall I call 911? 

As you can see, the bible at John 3:20 proves to be correct:  whenever Christians come around providing arguments for God and Jesus, the atheists become mysteriously paralyzed from doing anything more than turning away, plugging their ears, closing their eyes, jumping up and down and screaming to themselves "I won't come to the light lest my evil deeds be exposed" (John 3:20) and  "let the rocks and trees fall on us and hide us from the presence of Him who sits on the throne..." (Rev. 6:16). LOL

Tuesday, January 28, 2020

Did Jesus' family see any of his miracles? A study of John 2.

At another forum (see here), I posted the following challenge:

In the flurry of debate that was spawned by my arguments from Mark 3:21 and John 7:5, one objection was that we really don't know whether Jesus' family ever saw his magic shows. The point of that stupid trifle was to give the Christian apologist a little wiggle room so that the unbelief toward Jesus by his own family could be explained in a way not opening the door to justifying a skeptical conclusion (i.e., maybe they thought him insane or didn't believe him because they never saw his magic shows).

Ok, let's discuss that. Specifically, let's discuss whether my skeptical theory (i,e., that it is highly likely that Jesus' family saw at least a few of Jesus' magic shows) deserves to be labeled "reasonable".

In John 2:11, Jesus' changing water to wine is called the first of his miracles.

In John 2:1, Jesus' mother was present when this miracle took place.

The Greek word for "sign" is "semeion", and is the same word used to describe Jesus' healing a ruler's son at a distance (John 4:54), the feeding of the 5,000 (6:14), and the resurrection of Lazarus (12:18), So apologists are ill-advised to pretend "sign" means something less than a genuinely supernatural act. Therefore, if Jesus' mother was present at the wedding in Cana, she was present when a genuinely supernatural miracle happened, not merely present when some clever trick was performed. And what bible-believing Christian would dare muse that maybe Jesus engaged in purely naturalistic "tricks"?

Let us remember that Mary urged the wedding hosts to do whatever Jesus might ask them (2:5), almost as if she had already arrived at the conclusion that Jesus was of such high authority that he should be obeyed without hesitancy....almost as if she had seen him do miracles previously.

What Mary would have thought about the water-into-wine miracle, begs the question of what her prior experience with Jesus was like. Did she experience him as a clever trickster, or something a bit more serious?

The inerrantist or conservative will have a difficult time resisting my argument here, given that they think the Nativity stories are true, thus it must be historically true that Mary experienced in real life, before and after Jesus' birth, several divine conformations that her son was divine...so that with such history, she likely would view the water-into-wine "sign" as a genuinely supernatural act.

Joseph had a vision that Jesus was conceived divinely, (Matthew 1:20 ff), and it is surely reasonable to assume he shared such vision with Mary.
Mary was present when the Magic arrived to worship Jesus (Matthew 2:11).
Joseph then has another angelic dream confirming the divine status of the baby Jesus (Matthew 2:13-14) and it is most reasonable to assume that because he fled with her in the middle of the night, he likely told her the basis for his urgency in departing, just like any husband would if he roused the family and insisted they are pile into the car and take off in the middle of the night to another country. Epsecially given that such dreams afforded them "good news" and ended up saving their lives and the life of their Son.
Joseph then has another similar dream (Matthew 2:19 ff).
Joseph then has another similar dream (Matthew 2:22).

In Luke 1:26, an angel, apparently physically, comes to Mary and announces that her son shall be divine (vv. 31-32).
Mary is specifically informed about how god will cause this without involving a male sperm donor, v. 35.
Mary then apparently believes this message, v. 38.
Mary and Elizabeth then share a divine experience, v. 39-45.
Mary then shows her trust that such things are true by reciting the Magnificat, v. 46-55
Elizabeth's neighbors and relatives believed the same things, v. 58
This became a topic of popular concern, v. 65
An angel appears to shepherds who then go looking for and find Jesus, Luke 2:9 ff
Joseph and Mary were amazed at Simeon's testimony in favor of Jesus, Luke 2:33
A female prophet similarly testified, Luke 2:38

And of course, if we indulge the fundamentalist assumption that Jesus was god, then in addition to the above, Jesus' family must surely have recognized, likely to their amazement, for the first 30 years of his life, that Jesus never sinned. What would YOU think of a brother who never sinned? Luck?

First question; is it reasonable to assume that Mary, after this wedding at Cana, would have held the opinion that this changing of water into wine was genuinely supernatural, yes or no? If you answer "no", then provide the reasons for saying such an assumption is unreasonable.
---------------------------------------

Monday, January 13, 2020

Demolishing Triablogue: Steve is always prattling about, but never actually proving, modern day miracles


This is my reply to an article by Steve Hays of Triablogue entitled
Wednesday, January 08, 2020Miraculous healing and faith-healershttps://billdembski.com/theology-and-religion/faces-of-miracles-chapter-5/#more-54769
This is useful up to a point. Mind you, his experience was limited to an 18-month period. And the sample of faith-healers was very small. Not to mention that the psychic healers are prima facie charlatans from the get-go.
He didn't debunk miraculous healing. He only debunked some faith-healers.
This raises the question of whether there are healers in the sense of gifted individuals with the supernatural ability to heal the sick on a regular basis. That doesn't mean God can't heal through individuals, but it may be on rare occasion. Peter Bide comes to mind.
I've had a challenge to all "miracle happen today" Christians for at least a year now, the main one was directed to Craig Keener (see here and here) , since Hays views Keener's "Miracles" book as a "game-changer".

Us atheists tire from the "how do you know that miracles don't happen today" and the "too many miracle claims for all them to be false" bullshit.  Produce the documentation for the one modern-day miracle you believe is the most impervious to falsification, and let's get started.   







Wednesday, December 18, 2019

James Patrick Holding doesn't specialize in a Christian's "authority"

In the comment section to one of James Patrick Holding's videos, somebody brought up an unrelated question that one would figure Mr. Holding would be able to provide some guidance on:


Primitive CashPrimitive Cash2 weeks ago (edited)I’ve an unrelated question about Priesthood authority in this day vs in the times of the New Testament: Is it relevant to have authority from God in this age? If so, How does one know without question that a faith genuinely has said authority? I was LDS, and I once believed I had authority from Him to heal the sick, give blessings, and cast out demons, but I have found evidence that makes such assertions questionable at best.
tektontvtektontv2 weeks agoThat kind of question is not my bailiwick. Anyone else want to try?
Logician_BonesLogician_Bones1 week agoWell, not sure what you mean by "authority" but the last bit reminds me of the findings I've mentioned before on here reported through CMI re: Alien Intrusion with modern evidence that Christians who call on Jesus to stop experiences faked by demons are indeed freed from the experience (evidently demons masquerading as alien abductors). The Bible does suggest this sort of thing. I don't see much else if you mean in the miraculous category and have talked about why miracles are normally reserved for credentialing authorship of new Scripture and the canon is now closed. The protection from demons makes sense as possibly a nearly sole exception since demons aren't supposed to be intervening in the first place so aren't part of the normal way the world works that God normally lets happen in the fallen world so that miracles can be reserved for credentials of the Bible. This doesn't necessarily include all healings; it's only publicly proveable miracles that have to be reserved normally, but I wouldn't say "authority." We request things of God; it's up to him, since he alone is omniscient, which to actually say yes to. (And be very careful with claims that a yes answer HAS been given in the sense of miracles of intervention versus timing; most humans aren't good at judging that kind of thing.) If you mean authority in some other sense not sure but you suggested the answer yourself; go by evidence.
Primitive CashPrimitive Cash1 week agoLogician_Bones Thank you.
Leonel HuichoLeonel Huicho1 week agoBy Authority I Guess You mean authority to Interpret Scripture, It was always something Inherited, In Earlier Judaism for Example, God allowed scribes to modify certain passages as long as their teachings weren't altered. Regarding if Certain Religious Institution has the authority, It depends on a lot of factors, But One of them that I would be on how much they hold to the teachings of Christ, The early Apostles and the early Church.
Primitive CashPrimitive Cash1 week ago (edited)Leonel Huicho By ‘authority’, I mean having genuine access to abilities that would be seen as supernatural and therefore only accessible to God, such as spiritual healing, casting out devils, the ability to speak a language you didn’t know previously, et cetera. The LDS faith appears to exhibit many factors that reflect what is shown in the Bible, yet I see evidence that they are NOT the religion with His authority.
Primitive CashPrimitive Cash1 week agoStrange, no one has answered my leading question about the relevancy of having God’s authority this day.

Logician_BonesLogician_Bones6 days ago@Primitive Cash Not sure you've defined it clearly enough to see how my answer doesn't apply to your leading question. Why would it be relevant to have access in a sense called "authority" (versus requests and there being good reasons those requests probably normally shouldn't be granted today) to miracles? I would suggest that unbiblical religious views may go for that idea because they're sharing a bit of the concept of humanism -- wanting to be gods to some extent themselves, rather than admitting we're purely created by God and he has all the "authority" in the normal sense of the word). He gives us delegated authority with constraints and consequences if we behave immorally, but not inherently for miracles; why single out miracles? The only reason I can think of is for evidential purposes, but my answer covers this already. We already have sufficient evidence from the miraculous historical support for the Bible which stands for all time and all people. We shouldn't need more more more; that's actually a kind of mental unhealthiness to constantly need something new when the old is sufficient (along the lines of what James said about failing to do what the Bible says being like a person who looks in the mirror and walks away and immediately forgets what he looks like). It probably turns into a sort of circular-reasoning trap where they are so used to pushing the supposed importance of authority for no obvious reason other than self-serving ones that then all else becomes judged by this, kind of like "sovereignty" for Calvinists or "reason" (falsely so-called) for atheists or fundamentalism for fundies. I think it's reasonable simply to ask that those claiming such things are necessary provide sound, independant support for this claim, and if they can't, then we don't really need to disprove it per se, but have no reason to accept it either. (And it should also be enough that we do have sound support for the Bible!)
Since Holding claimed the question about priesthood authority did not implicate his "bailwick" (area of expertise) he didn't comment on it.  However, we can take PrimtiveCash's concerns one point at a time and provide what would qualify as a biblically justified response.  In doing so, we'll uncover certain bases for skepticism and therefore infer the real reason Mr. Holding retreated from what is otherwise a straightforward question with biblically straightforward answers:  You start trying to 'explain' why the authority of 1st centuy christians cannot be detected among 21st century Christians, and you run the risk of convincing yourself that the NT promises are nothing but empty idealism, and are accordingly reasonably rejected by non-Christians.
Primitive Cash2 weeks ago (edited)I’ve an unrelated question about Priesthood authority in this day vs in the times of the New Testament:
That's probably why Holding backed off...you are doomed to a land of necessary subjectivity if you try to "prove" that any biblical truth about 1st century Christians is applicable to 21st century Christians.  Jesus not coming back for 2,000 years doesn't sound like "quickly".  Holding will reply that he is a preterist and thus isn't bothered by the failure of Christ to float down from the clouds in literal fashion as expected by billions of Christians today. But the one bible verse that nukes Preterism is Acts 1:11...a verse that completely forbids spiritualizing the 2nd Coming the way Preterists necessarily do:
 6 So when they had come together, they were asking Him, saying, "Lord, is it at this time You are restoring the kingdom to Israel?"
 7 He said to them, "It is not for you to know times or epochs which the Father has fixed by His own authority;
 8 but you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; and you shall be My witnesses both in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and even to the remotest part of the earth."
 9 And after He had said these things, He was lifted up while they were looking on, and a cloud received Him out of their sight.
 10 And as they were gazing intently into the sky while He was going, behold, two men in white clothing stood beside them.
 11 They also said, "Men of Galilee, why do you stand looking into the sky? This Jesus, who has been taken up from you into heaven, will come in just the same way as you have watched Him go into heaven."
 12 Then they returned to Jerusalem from the mount called Olivet, which is near Jerusalem, a Sabbath day's journey away.   (Acts 1:6-12 NAU)

By the words "in just the same way", the angels validate the traditional Christian view that Jesus would literally float down out of the clouds "in just the same way" that he allegeldy ascended into them.  There is no way to reconcile Acts 1:11 with the spiritualized interpretation of the 2nd Coming that Preterists hold.

Anyway, back to Primitive Cash:
Is it relevant to have authority from God in this age?
As long as you believe Matthew the apostle authored the gospel now bearing his name, the answer is "yes":

First,  in Matthew 10, Jesus authorizes the original disciples to go around doing miracles, vv. 1-16.

Second, Jesus then follows up immediately with statements that apply to equally well to future generations of Christians, vv. 16-28.

Third, Jesus follows up with statements that most Christians today apply to their own modern situation vv 29-42

Fourth, the allegedly risen Christ specifies that his disciples are to take ALL the teachings they received and pass them on to future Gentile converts.  It's the part of the Great Commission most people miss:
 18 And Jesus came up and spoke to them, saying, "All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth.
 19 "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,
 20 teaching them to observe all that I commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age." (Matt. 28:18-20 NAU)
Since Matthew 10 is clearly part of the "all that I commanded you", this Great Commission was also telling the apostles to convey to future Gentile converts those comments Jesus made in Matthew 10...which would mean commissioning and exhorting new Gentile converts to perform miracles by the authority of God:
1 Jesus summoned His twelve disciples and gave them authority over unclean spirits, to cast them out, and to heal every kind of disease and every kind of sickness. (Matt. 10:1 NAU)
Since it is only dispentationalists who have any prayer of trying to delimit the "all" of Matthew 28:20, I suppose Mr. Holding will, upon reading this, suddenly discover the blessed assurance of dispensationalism, then protect his pride by the childish thing he does best...hurling insulting epithets at anybody who differs.  As if to disagree with Holding's bible bullshit placed one on the level of those who deny the existence of trees.

The gospels have more of the same.  For example, all scholars are agreed that John is the latest of the 4 gospels, which means he wrote likely around 80 a.d. when the original apostles had mostly died off, yet as long as you insist it was apostle John who wrote it, then it must have been apostle John who was encouraging just any reader to not only believe upon the basis of his words (20:31), but that Christians in future generations would do even greater miracles than Christ did:
 10 "Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father is in Me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on My own initiative, but the Father abiding in Me does His works.
 11 "Believe Me that I am in the Father and the Father is in Me; otherwise believe because of the works themselves.
 12 "Truly, truly, I say to you, he who believes in Me, the works that I do, he will do also; and greater works than these he will do; because I go to the Father.
 13 "Whatever you ask in My name, that will I do, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son.
 14 "If you ask Me anything in My name, I will do it.
 15 "If you love Me, you will keep My commandments.
 16 "I will ask the Father, and He will give you another Helper, that He may be with you forever;   (Jn. 14:10-16 NAU)
If John was writing these things around 80 or 90 a.d., its pretty clear that he was assuring even the new Christians of the same decades that they could do 'greater' works than what Jesus himself did. 

Holding will try to escape the obvious falsehood of the promise by spiritualizing "greater works" and then pretend that these only refer to canonizing the NT, or successfully evangelizing Gentiles, or anything else that can easily escape positive falsification, but the immediate context requires the "greater works" to be "anything" the converts ask (v. 14).  Later NT authors did not allow any exegetical room for the possibility that god might not want to heal the person you ask god to heal:
 13 Is anyone among you suffering? Then he must pray. Is anyone cheerful? He is to sing praises.
 14 Is anyone among you sick? Then he must call for the elders of the church and they are to pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord;
 15 and the prayer offered in faith will restore the one who is sick, and the Lord will raise him up, and if he has committed sins, they will be forgiven him.
 16 Therefore, confess your sins to one another, and pray for one another so that you may be healed. The effective prayer of a righteous man can accomplish much.   (Jas. 5:13-16 NAU)
Holding will say God's sovereign right to say "no" to such prayers is assured by other bible verses, but

a) bible inerrancy is an obviously false doctrine that not even inerrantists can agree on, despite more than 50 years of trying. Just ask Holding how stupid and obstinate people like Norman Geisler are.  Then watch him change his tune when you ask whether Mike Licona's openeness to error in the bible make him worthy of equally insulting invective.  Therefore, the doctrine does not deserve to be exalted in anybody's mind to the status of governing hermeneutic, forcing the reader to believe that the only interpretation of a bible verse that can be correct is one that can be harmonized with the rest of the bible, and;

b) because bible inerrancy is so unsettled and controversial, we can only do good things by refusing to use it as a check on the accuracy of an interpretation of a bible verse, remain open to the possibility that the NT author spoke in contradiction to something else in the bible, and demand that one's interpretation be based on the author's own assertions.  As soon as you start using outside data (bible inerrancy, social sciences, whatever) to help interpret the bile verse, you are imposing things on the text that could just as easily be wrong as right.

Therefore, we have a reasonable rational basis to say "fuck you" to bible inerrancy, reject using it as a hermeneutic, and insist that limiting ourselves to the text as much as possible is probably going to yield a more objective interpretation. Thus it cannot be unreasonable to say James intended this promise to be unqualified, and therefore, to charge him with error since the promise is obviously empty.  Therefore, we are not "ureasonable" to say that Jesus and others in the NT promised the unqualified future generations of Christians the authority to do miraculous healings, etc.  The fact that such things obviously never happen today, does not mean this interpretation is false, it means the NT authors were giving the readers empty promises. 

 Back to Primitive Cash:
If so, How does one know without question that a faith genuinely has said authority?
That's a good question since there is no particular denomination or group in the history of Christianity that can show they have any more ability than the others to fulfill Jesus' promise to effect miracle healings.
I was LDS, and I once believed I had authority from Him to heal the sick, give blessings, and cast out demons, but I have found evidence that makes such assertions questionable at best.
The dilemma here is whether Christian apologists can convincingly mitigate the failure of such biblical promises by pretending that such promises were so limited to certain early groups that the apologist can reconcile the "truth" of such promises with the obvious fact that the promises do not hold up for today's Christians.

For the fuckhead who thinks I blindly presume the biblical promise of miraculous healing never happens when I cannot possibly claim to have such extensive knowledge of world history, they are advised that I posted a direct challenge to Craig Keener to back up his claim that ANY miracle has happened within the last 100 years.  He has never responded to the challenge.  See here and here.

Then let such fuckhead Christians remember that many of their own are "cessationists" who are Christian in faith, but who insist the age of miracles died out with the apostles, and thus such Christians are no more impressed by "modern accounts of miracles"  than I am.  Richard B. Gaffin writes such an article for the Christian apologetics site "whitehoseinn", see here.  He is a Calvinist, which means he disagrees with Calvinist Steve Hays of Triablogue, who believes miracles still happen today.  Apparently, not even joining the right church and believing the right theology does anything to guard against your falling into error. 

It's almost as if there's no god guiding this bullshit, where people end up after serious bible study is determined by nothing more than their ability to learn and their circumstances.  The idea that god is "guiding" them is total dogshit.

Let's continue responding.  Next item up for bids is LogicianBones, who seems to think excess verbiage might hoodwink the more gullible into thinking he has anything to say that remotely scares off skeptics:
Logician_BonesLogician_Bones1 week agoWell, not sure what you mean by "authority"
The right or power from God to cause miraculous healing.
but the last bit reminds me of the findings I've mentioned before on here reported through CMI re: Alien Intrusion with modern evidence that Christians who call on Jesus to stop experiences faked by demons are indeed freed from the experience (evidently demons masquerading as alien abductors).
But this avoids the real question. The issue is not whether demons take form as space aliens to divert Christians away from important subjects, but how we can know which Christians today have authority from god to perform any type of miracle. 
The Bible does suggest this sort of thing.
hence, the problem created for you and your inability to point to any miracle in the last 100 years that you think is the most impervious to falsification.  You don't dare suggest an example without running the risk of having it shoved back in your face with empirically justified contempt. 
I don't see much else if you mean in the miraculous category and have talked about why miracles are normally reserved for credentialing authorship of new Scripture and the canon is now closed.
Sorry, I've never heard of any "miracles" being done to "credential" any scripture authorship, whether the bible or otherwise, nor am I aware of any "miracle" done to demonstrate that the "canon" ever became "closed"...unless you equate mere historical happenstance and unwillingness of some of the church to expand on the canon after the 4th century, to be a "miracle"?
The protection from demons makes sense as possibly a nearly sole exception since demons aren't supposed to be intervening in the first place so aren't part of the normal way the world works that God normally lets happen in the fallen world so that miracles can be reserved for credentials of the Bible.
Hurry up and give us one modern-day miracle that you think is the most impervious to falsification.
This doesn't necessarily include all healings; it's only publicly proveable miracles that have to be reserved normally, but I wouldn't say "authority."
Oh, name a "publicly provable" miracle.
We request things of God; it's up to him, since he alone is omniscient, which to actually say yes to.
No, you simply mistake systematic theology for the Holy Spirit, and then you use the rest of the bible as the rose-colored glasses by which to interpret otherwise unqualified biblical promises that believers will do miracles.  Read James 5:15, the context does not permit reading a "but maybe God for sovereign reasons might not do a particular healing" into it.  And I already showed the reasonableness of skeptics and others to reject using bible inerrancy as a hermeneutic.  So you are stuck with an interpretation of a biblical promise in James 5 that normative and non-controversial rules of interpretation shows to be reasonable, despite the fact that the promise thus proves to be empty.  That is, the bible's assurances of how "authority" manifests itself in the life of Christians, are nothing but unrealistic idealism gone to seed.  FUCK YOU.
(And be very careful with claims that a yes answer HAS been given in the sense of miracles of intervention versus timing; most humans aren't good at judging that kind of thing.) If you mean authority in some other sense not sure but you suggested the answer yourself; go by evidence.
Primitive CashPrimitive Cash1 week agoLogician_Bones Thank you.
Leonel HuichoLeonel Huicho1 week agoBy Authority I Guess You mean authority to Interpret Scripture, It was always something Inherited, In Earlier Judaism for Example, God allowed scribes to modify certain passages as long as their teachings weren't altered. Regarding if Certain Religious Institution has the authority, It depends on a lot of factors, But One of them that I would be on how much they hold to the teachings of Christ, The early Apostles and the early Church.
But the dichotomy between one's interpretations and the "teachings of Christ" is false, as you don't know any teaching of Christ apart from interpretation.  Fundies are constantly talking about how something in the bible doesn't need interpretation, but they are sadly mistaken, the very act of discerning what the text means, constitutes "interpretation".  Even if reading the front page of yesterdays New York Times headline involves using less controversial assumptions in the interpretive process.
Primitive CashPrimitive Cash1 week ago (edited)Leonel Huicho By ‘authority’, I mean having genuine access to abilities that would be seen as supernatural and therefore only accessible to God, such as spiritual healing, casting out devils, the ability to speak a language you didn’t know previously, et cetera.
Thanks for clarifying.  Might be nice if the Christian believers in modern-day miracles actually produced the one they think most impervious to falsification, and accordingly stick their necks out, instead of ceaselessly hiding behind a subterfuge of methodological disagreement.  See how I steamrolled Steve Hays and his attempt to pretend that skepticism of miracles is unreasonable, here.  How does Hays keep the door open to miracles happening to day?  By using absurdly low standards of evidence, then accusing skeptics of being unreasonable when they demand that such miracle evidence meet the same level of criteria used in most criminal investigations.
The LDS faith appears to exhibit many factors that reflect what is shown in the Bible, yet I see evidence that they are NOT the religion with His authority.
Primitive CashPrimitive Cash1 week agoStrange, no one has answered my leading question about the relevancy of having God’s authority this day.
From what I wrote above, you can see why:  They start trying to answer your question in any serious way, and a brick wall of "why is there no serious evidence for the perpetuity of any spiritual gift today" will hit them at about 184 mph.  So by pretending "that's not my bailwick" one can escape such certain embarrassment.  Now leave Mr. Holding alone so he can fly 1000 miles to give his next "bible doesn't teach a flat earth" lecture to the next group of 25 people.
Logician_BonesLogician_Bones6 days ago@Primitive Cash Not sure you've defined it clearly enough to see how my answer doesn't apply to your leading question. Why would it be relevant to have access in a sense called "authority" (versus requests and there being good reasons those requests probably normally shouldn't be granted today) to miracles?
Because the bible promises all believers the ability to work miracles, which means it sucks to be you, an inerrantist who never sees any contradiction between bible promises and reality.  you aren't going to make a reasonable case that spiritual gifts were restricted to the 1st century, so if they fail to manifest today, its because the bible promises otherwise are empty.
I would suggest that unbiblical religious views may go for that idea because they're sharing a bit of the concept of humanism -- wanting to be gods to some extent themselves, rather than admitting we're purely created by God and he has all the "authority" in the normal sense of the word). He gives us delegated authority with constraints and consequences if we behave immorally, but not inherently for miracles; why single out miracles?
Ahhh, you are backtracking already.  You BETTER try to think of some way to exempt the miraculous from this discussion, otherwise, you'll have to explain why modern Christians cannot produce any evidence that they ever perform any of the healings or miracles which the NT promises to all future generations of believers.
The only reason I can think of is for evidential purposes, but my answer covers this already. We already have sufficient evidence from the miraculous historical support for the Bible which stands for all time and all people.
You are also high on crack:  I've been asking apologists to hit me with whatever argument for Christianity they think the most impervious to falsification, whether historicity of Jesus' resurrection, of fulfillment of messianic prophecy, or proof of bible inerrancy, or whatever.  So far, nobody from Mr. Holding's gang has dared confront me with any such thing.  Getting their ass kicked all over hell and back probably doesn't help promote their agenda of confident dogmatism, so naturally, they bow out.  This is true also for Hays, Engwer and the fools at Triablogue, who clearly know about my challenges, but don't do jack shit about it.
We shouldn't need more more more; that's actually a kind of mental unhealthiness to constantly need something new when the old is sufficient (along the lines of what James said about failing to do what the Bible says being like a person who looks in the mirror and walks away and immediately forgets what he looks like).
Then count me out: i'm only asking for one solid pro-Christian argument that actually works.  So far, you lose.   I've already answered the Josh McDowell' bullshit, and I constantly answer Triablogue and other apologists.  If you think you have anything more powerful than they have, feel free to drop by, and let's get started with the one argument you think is most impervious to falsification.  Otherwise, take your confident rhetorical posturing and shove it up your loquacious ass.
It probably turns into a sort of circular-reasoning trap where they are so used to pushing the supposed importance of authority for no obvious reason other than self-serving ones that then all else becomes judged by this, kind of like "sovereignty" for Calvinists or "reason" (falsely so-called) for atheists or fundamentalism for fundies.
Wow, you mean even after you accept christ, there's no guarantee of being transformed into Christ's image?  Then apparently the promise of salvation is empty, since any change you made to your sinful self since you "got saved" can just as easily be explained in purely naturalistic terms. 
I think it's reasonable simply to ask that those claiming such things are necessary provide sound, independant support for this claim,
Ok, I see nothing in the present world that indicates ANY part of the NT is still valid today.  Any truths about today's Christians are easily explainable in purely naturalistic terms, which means it is reasonable for the skeptic to reject the notion that today's Christians have experienced ANY type of "miracle". For the last time, if you think that's wrong, take the one miracle you believe is most impervious to falsification, and let's get started.
and if they can't, then we don't really need to disprove it per se, but have no reason to accept it either. (And it should also be enough that we do have sound support for the Bible!)
Since you are preaching to the choir, I no more need to "refute" this than I "need" to refute the Brownsville Revival.

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