Showing posts with label gospel of Luke. Show all posts
Showing posts with label gospel of Luke. Show all posts

Sunday, July 9, 2017

Demolishing Triablogue, part 4: Steve Hays' absurdly low standards for miracle-investigation

 Update: apparently, Steve Hays cannot assert that my skepticism of modern-day miracles is the result of me being stupid or spiritually dead, because other Christians have chided Steve for his ridiculous position that one cannot deny the authenticity of Benny Hinn's miracles without endangering the authenticity of biblical miracles. 


In 2014, I posted the following argument to Steve Hays at Triablogue:  In short, atheists have rational justification to dismiss all modern-day miracle claims, in most cases, because the only kind of investigation that would count as objective, is the kind that was comprehensive, and the typical atheist, with a family and a job, simply does not have enough time, money or resources to go checking out, in a thorough way, modern-day miracle claims.  I also had something to say about why miracle claims consistently fail the acid test of regrowth of  missing limbs.  Suspiciously, the "miracles" alleged today are always things that are more prone to fraud and falsification, medical error, etc.  If God does miracles today to convince people of the gospel, we have to wonder why he scratched healing of missing limbs off of his magic to-do list.

Hays' response did what my argument was designed to do: force the apologist to take an irrational position.

This is my reply to Hays' criticism of my argument.

    The critic’s basic argument is that, assuming god is the omni-everything that the bible says he is, the lack of medically verified regrowing of limbs among those who claim documentation of miracle-healing, is suspicious, given that the regrowing of a missing limb, clearly beyond the abilities of current science, would be the acid test of the miracle-healing claim.

Since God never promised to heal amputees, there's nothing suspicious about God not doing what God never said he was going to do.
Not so fast:  assuming historical reliability of the gospels, you don't know that the restoration of missing limbs wasn't a part of Jesus' healing ministry.  Jesus did the very similar miracle of healing a withered hand:
 10 After looking around at them all, He said to him, "Stretch out your hand!" And he did so; and his hand was restored. (Lk. 6:10 NAU)
Magical creation of new tissues must also have occurred in the healing of the blind man in John 9:7.  Indeed, healing of any genuine bodily disease would require either creation of new material, or fixing the existing material, so if Jesus could heal withered hands and blind eyes, it really isn't asking him to do anything harder or different to restore missing limbs.  Furthermore, Jesus allegedly promised that his followers would do even greater miracles:
12 "Truly, truly, I say to you, he who believes in Me, the works that I do, he will do also; and greater works than these he will do; because I go to the Father. (Jn. 14:12 NAU)
The issue is not what God promised, but what the rational consequences are that flow from the biblical data, assuming your inerrantist view as true for the sake of argument.  If God heals withered hands, why doesn't he heal missing limbs?  What do you normally conclude when a claim can pass weak tests (my doctor said he was astonished that my broken back healed itself while I prayed) but cannot pass the acid test (I can't remember the name of the doctor or where I was treated)?
I said: 
    I think my fellow skeptics are unwise to pursue this particular argument, since, as proven from the article at Triablogue, this particular criticism emboldens apologists to lure us into areas of pure speculation.
 Hays:
So even though he admits that it's unwise for atheists to pursue this particular argument, he persists in doing so anyway. Go figure.
 Yeah, and the bible  within the space of two verses gives reasons to both answer and not answer a fool, Proverbs 26:4-5, but doesn't specify the exact conditions by which you can know which advice is most proper.  If you can see that the author was speaking in general terms, why can't you see that was the case here, so that while the amputee argument usually does lead to useless speculation, there are times when pursuing the argument would be valid?  I'm sorry for assuming you were a cut above the other apologists and that we could debate the subject without going off into pure speculation.  My bad.
   I said:  I argue in another post that the minimum expenses and and time lost from work/family necessary for skeptics to track down important evidence and otherwise do a seriously thorough investigation on miracle claims, make it absurd for apologists to saddle skeptics with the obligation to “go check out the claims”.  If the apologists at Triabolgue [sic] are serious, they would obligate a skeptic living in America to expend whatever resources necessary to get to southern Africa (‘Gahna), properly interview all witnesses and get back home.  Absolute nonsense.
Hays: i) A classic strawman. I never suggested that evaluating a miracle claim requires you to reinterview the witnesses.
 Then your standard of evidence is unacceptably low.  When claims are such that they can change lives for the better or worse, it is important to make sure they really are true, to guard against what often happens, somebody being drawn away into believing false claims that engender false hope. The whole point is that you are put in a bind:  If we atheists are obligated to go "check out" miracle claims, it is only fair that the type of "checking out" we are responsible to do, be the comprehensive kind since fraudulent miracle claims abound.  But if you agree to that reasonable prospect, then you have to say we aren't obligated anymore, since it is not rational to expect the average atheist with family and job to come up with the money necessary to go chasing down miracle claims.  But if you try to avoid the financial problem and say we are obligated to "check out" the claims only in the lesser sense of merely gathering testimonial evidence and evaluating it at a distance, then you end up doing what you did here:  setting forth an absurdly low standard of evidence and pretending we can gain reasonable certainty about the truth or falsity of a miracle claim by simply evaluating testimonial evidence.  In short, the only way you can intellectually obligate a skeptic to "check out" miracle claims is if you insist they perform their analysis in the comprehensive way that the average person simply doesn't have the time, money or resources to perform, thus defeating your entire purpose in challenging them to so investigate.
If, however, an atheist is so irrational that he refuses to believe testimonial evidence unless he personally conducts the interview, then that's his self-imposed burden of proof.  
On the contrary, that higher standard of evidence was suggested by Keener:
"Rumor tends to shape and exaggerate stories, so it is desireable to come as close to eyewitness accounts or other first-hand sources as possible.  The nature of narrativisation and  testimony is such that successful cures are remembered disproportionately." 
You have not demonstrated that requiring personal interview is irrational or unreasonable, especially in light of the fact that today, "testimonial" evidence is easily falsified, espescially in today's world where the miracle claim usually gts advertised through the internet and other conduits. Falsified testimony is exposed in Courts every day.  False affidavits, doctor error in the medical reports, photoshopping, claimant simply lying to get attention/money (viz. the Lutz's and their Amityville horror hoax).  The irrational person is the idiot apologist who thinks documentary evidence short of personal interviews is sufficient to tell whether the claimed miracle is true or false.  And unless you've been living under a rock, atheists are rational to require this higher standard of evidence be met given that false and unverified miracle claims are far more popular than whatever number you think are legitimate.
ii) I'd add that his complaint is very quaint, as if he were living in the 18C, and had to interview witnesses face-to-face. Has he never heard of email or telephones?
So apparently you think I can learn enough about a miracle claim solely through email that it will intellectually obligate me to change my worldview?  You think talking with somebody solely over a phone should provide evidence of sufficient quantity/quality that I can reasonably tell whether they are lying, mistaken, or honest?

 Steve, have you ever met anybody who changed their worldview solely because of evidence they obtained from email or phone?  No, you haven't.  Like I said, the fact that you disagree with my position here means you are forced to take an unreasonable position yourself...such as arguing that a phone call should suffice to convince me that a miracle claim is true (!?)

You may conveniently qualify that you meant email or phone in conjunction with other evidence.

Ok, what other evidence? Doctor's report?  What if the miracle claim is on the internet and I downloaded the medical report from the website?  Should I or shouldn't I attempt to authenticate the report?  Or do you just insist that if it's from the internet, it's true?
In fact, even before the advent of airplanes, people wrote letters to solicit information.
But since a) letters can easily be falsified, b) letters can exaggerate the truth, it only makes good sense to attempt authentication of a letter where possible, and to responsibly back off the dogmatism if the miracle-claim depends primarily on a writing whose author is no longer available to authenticate it.  I think this is the part where you start telling the world why all lawyers and judges are just stupid thugs for believing that the need to authenticate testamentary materials helps the jury to know the actual truth.

Indeed, if you read about a modern-day miracle claim on the internet, do you perform any more substantive investigation than simply collecting the known written and oral testimonies?
  I said:  No Christian is going to travel half way around the world to investigate a claim that the ultimate miracle debunking has happened, so they have no business expecting skeptics to go halfway around the world in effort to properly conduct an independent investigation of a miracle-claim.
Hays: There's no parity between these two positions. Atheism posits a universal negative with respect to miracles. An atheist must reject every single reported miracle. By contrast, it only takes one miracle to falsify atheism. Therefore, the atheist and the Christian apologist do not share the same burden of proof. Not even close.
No, its very close; Christians must reject every claimed argument for naturalism, since it only takes one proper evidence of naturalism to falsify Christian miracle claims.  Therefore, the atheist and Christian apologist share the same burden of proof.  I cannot scour every square inch of the universe to verify that God isn't there, and you can't scour every square inch of the universe to verify that no successful arguments for naturalism exist.  You'd be stupid to attempt such a feat.
    I said: Would it be too much to ask apologists to do something more with their claim of miracle healing, than simply provide references?
i) Actually, that would be asking too much.
Then why do your miracle defenses involve more than simply citing references to claimed miracles?  Methinks you don't seriously believe that emailing to me a reference to a documentary claim of a miracle discharges your rightful burden.  Otherwise, to be fair, you have to allow that atheists fulfill their burden by simply giving you references to find arguments supporting naturalism.
Just as we accept documentation for other historical events, we ought to accept documentation for miracles. Miracles are just a subset of historical events in general.
But some miracle documentation is falsified.  How do you discern which are falsified, if, as you believe, asking apologists for more than "references" would be asking too much?  You earlier said telephones work too.  If I gave you the phone number of a man living in Sudan who thinks he has found the ultimate argument for naturalism, would you give him a ring?  No, of course not.  Then you cannot insist you transfer the burden to an atheist immediately upon giving them nothing but "references" to miracles.
ii) His complaint only makes sense if there's a standing presumption against the occurrence of miracles, so that miracles must meet a higher standard of evidence. But as I've often argued, that begs the question.
Ok, so to avoid begging the question, I should react to the person seriously claiming to have walked to the store and back yesterday, no differently than I react to the person who seriously claims to have levitated by mental powers alone.

Your attempted wiggle is irrational, as must be the case when you resist the mountain of truth I threw at you with my original arguments:  If we don't demand for miracles a higher standard of evidence than we demand for unextraordinary claims, then because I usually do accept, absent good evidence to the contrary, the testimony that somebody walked to the store and back, I must therefore also accept, absent good evidence to the contrary, the testimony that somebody levitated by mental powers alone.  That's what logically results if we take your lower standard of evidence seriously.  This guy said he walked to the store, that other guy says he can float by mental power alone, and if I dare hold the latter to a higher standard of proof before believing him, I commit the fallacy of begging the question.

Steve, have you ever been suspicious, despite inability to actually prove it false, that some testimony is false?  If I told you I found $370 million dollars in authentic U.S Currency in the middle of my street last week, wouldn't your immediate reaction be one of skepticism? If so, why?  Do you worship David Hume, and like him, get more and more suspicious as the claimed event departs more and more from your daily experience?

How many times have we verified that a person is capable of walking to the store and back?

How many times have we verified that a person can levitate by mental powers alone?

And you think the same standard of evidence should be applied in both cases? Like I said, you aren't going to oppose my argument justifying refusal to investigate miracles, without enduring the consequence of sounding like a fool.
iii) I'd also note in passing that if God exists, then it would be extraordinary if miracles didn't happen. If God exists, then miracles are to be expected.
No, that's just your Calvinist bible assumptions rearing their ugly heads.  If there is an intelligent creator responsible for the universe, that doesn't automatically imply miracles are possible.  That's about as dumb as the ant concluding that humans can do anything logically possible, because we have so much more power and intelligence than an ant.
iv) I'd add that belief in miracles doesn't require prior belief in God. Evidence for miracles is, itself, evidence for God.
   I said:  If you seriously believe you have evidence of a modern day healing that cannot be explained by current medical science, set forth your case.
Hays: Testimonial evidence is setting forth a case.
I can find plenty of testimonial evidence to miracles on the internet.  So do you think presenting miracle-testimonies collected from the internet constitutes setting forth a case?  If so, then perhaps you think presenting testimony of Loch Ness monster witnesses constitutes setting forth a case.  Sorry, Steve, the price of disagreeing with me is to show that your standard of evidence is absurdly low.

Steve, what was your opinion of the reality of the Loch Ness monster, before it was proven to be a hoax?  What did you do with the eyewitness testimonies?  Did you automatically believe them?  If not, then how did you evaluate them before the hoax was revealed?  Did you remain skeptical of the testimonies?  If so, why?  What was it about those testimonies that made you suspicious that whatever they might have seen was something other than a Loch Ness monster?
 I said:   ...God having the sovereign right to avoid doing monster miracles, accomplishes nothing more than helping distract the less educated Christian readers from the simple fact that you have ZERO medically documented medically inexplicable healings.
Hays: That's just an empty denial in the face of explicit documentation to the contrary.
And conveniently, you avoid the heat by refusing to provide even one little bit of said documentation.  Come on Steve, provide for me medical documentation of a healing that you say is the most immune to naturalistic explanation.  What, are you afraid that you'll start contradicting your low "testimonial evidence should suffice" standard, when I start asking what attempt you made to authenticate the report? 
    I said: Steve says Craig Keener has cited documented cases of body-part regeneration. Cf. Miracles The Credibility of the New Testament Accounts. So there’s prima facie evidence that God heals some amputees (or the equivalent). Does Steve know of anybody who has attempted to obtain the medical documentation and/or witness statements that Keener has cited?
Hays: Do atheists make the same demand for cures in general?
 Excuse me, Steve:  I asked you whether you know of anybody who has attempted to obtain the medical documentation and/or witness statements that Keener has cited.  Your answer doesn't help me obtain documentation to support your extolling of Keener's evidence.  Please answer directly.
If a patient recovers from stage-1 cancer, do they refuse to believe it unless they can read the medical records for themselves and interview the patient?
I don't believe whatever a doctor tells me, until I've had time to examine for myself the evidence that led him to his conclusion.  After all, doctors have been wrong plenty of times about whether somebody has "recovered" from cancer.  Also, your attempted analogy is fallacious, as the reason we usually believe a doctor without attempting to independently verify his accuracy is because we know he is aware of a malpractice suit that might come his way if he lies or distorts the facts and we believe him in a way that causes us further unnecessary injury.  There is no equally motivating threat hanging over the head of a miracle-claimant.  You lose.
I said: Notice the unexamined bias. 
     It would be helpful for apologists to provide the one case of body part regeneration they feel is the most compelling, and lets get the ball rolling on the subject of just how good the medical documentation, diagnosis and witness statements really are.
Hays: Demanding evidence of body-part regeneration is an artificial litmus test for miracles.
I did not express or imply that body-part regeneration was supposed to be any litmus test for miracles.  I was talking about the cases of body-part regeneration Keener alleged in his work, which you cited to, supra.  You and/or Keener are indeed making the claim that there is evidence for body-part regeneration miracles, but so far, you seem more interested in sophistry than in getting down to business and providing me with those "references".  Don't make a claim and expect atheists to cower in fear unless you back it up with argument and evidence. When you get in the mood to subject to atheist scrutiny the one body-part regeneration miracle testimony that you believe can most likely survive the test of investigation, send me the "references" for it.
I never took that demand seriously in the first place. I'm just calling their bluff.
What are you talking about?  Are you saying you don't take seriously claims of miraculous body-part regeneration?
Atheists who refuse to consider evidence for miracles in general, and instead resort to this decoy, betray their insincerity. Logically, the case for miracles is hardly confined to one artificial class of miracles.
True, but you are still stuck with the ominous fact that despite your god allegedly finding it no more difficult to restore missing limbs than to heal fever, the former is conspicuously absent among miracle claims that can be investigated to any significant degree.  It's not really different from the guy who claims to have graduated from Harvard with his medical degree, but can never quite get around to supplying enough information to enable positive verification or falsification of anything beyond graduating from high school.  Sorry Steve, but its perfectly reasonable and rational to pick a time when the failure to pass the acid test is the point where initial skepticism justifiably begins.  I can accept that some guy on the street is telling the truth that he is a brain surgeon, but I 'm gonna start having problems with the claim if for unknown reasons he always dodges attempts to verify his medical education or occupation.  The issue is not what's true, but what's reasonable for the investigator to believe if their attempts to verify are met with silence. 
    I said: Apologists think they score big on the objectivity scale by insisting that skeptics and atheists do their own research into the claims for miracles that appear in Christian books.  A large list of miracle-claim references may be found in Craig Keener’s two volume set “Miracles (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Academic, 2011)”.  But if we are realistic about the time and money required to be expended in the effort to properly investigate a single modern-day miracle claim, it becomes immediately clear that the apologist advice that skeptics should check out those claims, is irrational for all except super-wealthy super-single super-unemployed super-bored skeptics.
Hays: That's ironic, considering the obvious fact that Keener isn't "super-wealthy, super-single, or super-unemployed."
No analogy, Keener's obvious motive to do whatever investigation he did, was his Christian faith, and regardless, you cannot reasonably expect atheists who have lives and jobs not involving Christianity, to suddenly give up their mode of life and go chasing down miracle claims.  He didn't properly investigate, as he himself admits his miracle references are just that (i.e., "I lack the means to evaluate all of the claims adequately", 241, "When I have offered judgments that some reports are likely authentic or inauthentic [perhaps based on my training as a biblical critic] I have offered opinions based on where I think evidence points, but often the evidence at my disposal is quite limited, and inevitably my judgments will sometimes be wrong....I could not personally investigate all the reports with interviews and certainly not with medical examinations..."), he does not claim to have done more investigation into his myriad miracle claims than what was necessary to obtain the references.  And it wouldn't matter if he had...I would be investigating his investigation, and as such, no, I would not "just believe" should he have described participating in some healing event that he solemnly testifies he watched miracles take place in.  I'd then have to evaluate Keener's own credibility, and that cannot be done by email or phone, unless you'd agree that when you are framed for murder, it is sufficient for your attorney to deal with the prosecution's witness against you solely by phone and email?  If the importance of avoiding jail justifies the heightened standard of evidence, how much more so the importance of avoiding getting suckered into some cult?

I never said you have to be super-wealthy, super-single, or super-unemployed to produce a long list of miracle claims.  And its not ironic since, if you were to claim some healing took place in Africa, the only American citizen atheist that could do a properly thorough job of investigation, authentication of testimony and testing for fraud, would have to be super-wealthy, super-single, or super-unemployed.  Your suggestion that such atheist need not operate at such high standard of evidence does little more than subject him to the possibility of being deceived by a clever fraud, and God knows, the world is full of fraudulent miracle claims.  Insisting on the higher standard of evidence creates the benefit of further guarding against being drawn into a cult or false religion by means of clever fraud.
Indeed, as Keener said in the introduction, "I have no research team, no research assistants, and no research funds; nor have I had sabbaticals to pursue this research" (1:12). What hinders an atheist from doing what Keener did? 
Nothing, because putting together a long list of anecdotal references to miracle claimants doesn't require one to be super-wealthy, super-single, or super-unemployed, and I never said otherwise.  What I said was that properly thorough and comprehensive analysis and testing of miracle claims cannot be done by the average person but only by those who are super-wealthy, super-single, or super-unemployed.  Putting together a list of miracle claim references does not constitute properly thorough and comprehensive analysis and testing of those miracle claims. Agreed?
    I said: Apologists, desperate to cut the skeptic’s costs as much as possible so as to leave them “without excuse”, will suggest ways to cut the costs as described above...
Hays: Another strawman. Atheists are already without excuse.
Preaching the choir. Feel better?
 I said:    What bright ideas do you have for the married miracle skeptic whose wife homeschools their children, who has only one job?
Hays: Since when did atheists join the Christian homeschooling movement?
Ok, so you use the stupid premise that you don't know when atheists joined the homeschooling movement, as substitute for direct answer?  If you have any bright ideas of the sort I asked for, please give them.  Steve, is there a reason why you think the atheists who tangle with you, shit themselves in fear every time you challenge them?  Not only am I not seeing it, I highly doubt you'd accept a formal debate challenge. Would you like to have a formal debate about my challenge (i.e., that atheists have full rational justification to dismiss miracle claims before bothering to investigate them)?
  I said:   If skeptics need to stay open to the possibility of miracles merely because they cannot rationally go around investigating each and every miracle claim, then must you, the Christian apologist, stay open to the possibility that miracles don’t happen, on the grounds that you don’t have the time or money to investigate every single naturalistic argument skeptics have ever come up with?
Hays: Once again, these are asymmetrical positions. It only takes on miracle to exclude atheism, whereas atheism must exclude every miracle.
Once again, these are not asymmetrical positions.  It only takes one successful argument for naturalism to exclude Christianity.
I said:  And the bad news is that it doesn’t matter if we investigate a single claim and come up with good reasons to remain skeptical of it….there are thousands of other miracle claims complete with identifiable eyewitnesses and alleged medical documentation that we haven’t investigated.
Hays:  i) That's the dilemma for atheism. A position with an insurmountable burden of proof. Good luck with that. Not my problem.

On the contrary, it IS your problem because you cannot call somebody a fool for refusing to do a half-assed job of investigating something.  When you counter my proposal of serious interviewing and authenticating documents, with the prospect of relying solely on testimonial evidence an perhaps email and phone, you are asking atheists to do a half-assed job of investigating miracles.  I am not unreasonable to reject your half-assed proposal as irrational, insist that only a comprehensive investigation will suffice, and then dismiss miracles immediately since employing the proper methodology would cost more money and time than anybody could rationally expect anybody to expend.  You start telling me that investigating an alleged healing in Germany is more important than my earning a paycheck to keep my family fed and housed, and your circle of followers will either decrease or sink further into absurd fanaticism.
ii) Atheists are like paranoid cancer patients who refuse treatment until they can verify the treatment for themselves.
No, blind trust in a doctor is justified by the threat over his head called "malpractice suit".  No such motivation exists over the head of those who make miracle claims.  I believe you said something about two positions being asymmetric?
They make irrational, time-consuming demands on the oncologist to prove the efficacy of cancer therapy.
Nope, its more likely he's telling the truth to the best of his ability, than that he is lying. While on the other hand, whether a miracle claim, found somewhere on the internet, is telling the truth, deluded or intentionally deceptive, remains unknown unless one wishes to expend the money, time and resources necessary to investigate them in a way that guards the most against fraud or mistake.
But the oncologist is under no obligation to accede to their unreasonable demands.
So apparently you are the dumbest idiot on the planet, since a doctor is required by law to provide the patient with their own medical records at their request and to explain the reasons why the doctor gives the diagnosis or prognosis that she did.
He's not the one with the life-threatening disease. He has nothing to prove to the paranoid patient.
So in your world, doctors do not attempt to prove their conclusions to paranoid patients who ask for such case to be made.  They simply discharge them, send a bill, and ignore requests for explanation and evidence. I told you fundy Christianity comes with irrational consequences, but no, you wouldn't listen.
It's the patient whose life is on the line. It's the patient who has everything to lose.
If the patient is diagnosed with stage-1 cancer, but refuses treatment for 8 months while he conducts his own "independent" investigation–by interviewing other patients–then even if he succeeds in satisfying his personal curiosity, and is now amendable to therapy, by that time he will have stage-4 cancer–at which point therapy is futile.
Again, automatic blind faith in a doctor is justified because they are regulated by law and endure the threat of a malpractice suit for negligence or willful deception, achieving the desired result of reducing the chances that they are lying or mistaken, to nearly zero.  No such inducement to tell truth hangs over the head of random miracle claimants found all over the world, as abundantly testified to by the thousands of falsified miracle claims, Benny Hinn and 99% of all faith-healing televangelists, who function here as prime examples.
  I said:   If the apologists here saw video footage of a dog flying around a room using biological wings sprouting out of its back, would they insist on making sure all other alternative explanations were definitively refuted before they would be open to considering that this was a real dog with real natural flying ability? Then skeptics, likewise, when confronted with evidence for a miracle healing, would insist on making sure all other alternative possible explanations were definitively refuted before they would start considering that the claimed miracle was genuinely supernatural in origin.
Hays: i) That's an argument from analogy minus the argument. Where's the supporting argument to show that miracles are analogous to flying dogs?
Is there any serious difference between flying dogs, talking donkeys and talking serpents?
Answer the question, you frightened barking child!  If somebody got in your face and insisted their video of a flying dog is authentic and proves at least one dog has genuine natural flying ability, would you or would you not attempt to authenticate this?  Or would you rely on Hume's automatic dismissal of miracles to tell yourself it's so likely that fraud is afoot here that you are rational to dismiss the claim before investigating it?

I posit a flying dog, while you posit bizarre creatures with multiple faces, whose figurative interpretation is far from obvious (Ezekiel 1:6, Calvin adopts the literal interpretation and so does inerrantist LaMar Eugene Cooper, so you cannot assert the literal interpretation is the result of spiritual deadness). If anything, it is YOUR bizarre creatures that are less likely to be true than a flying dog. Again, the cheribum on top of the Ark are human-like and have wings (Ex. 25:20).  I guess this is the part where you ask me why I think winged dogs are analogous to winged humans?  Again, your religion requires you to believe in quasi-human-like "seraphim" that have six wings (Isaiah 6:1-2), and because they are said to "fly", this is reasonably interpreted as implying there is air in heaven, since the wings are presented as the basis upon which it flies.  Go take a long walk and do some soul-searching before you bite back that flying dog are more ridiculous than talking snakes, talking donkeys, and flying four-faced quasi-humans.  If your religious defense mechanisms were not on red alert, you'd scoff just as loudly at the prospect of a talking donkey as you do at the prospect of a flying dog.
ii) Instead of dealing with the actual evidence for actual miracles, atheists deflect attention away from the evidence by floating hypothetical examples. But that's a diversionary tactic.
Hypotheticals are standard argument fare.  Apparently you are new to the concept?  And there's no diversionary tactic.  If you believe in flying four-faced creatures and talking donkeys/talking snakes, it is rational to expect that you are open to the prospect of believing in flying dogs.
iii) Moreover, it's self-defeating. If an atheist concocts the most ridiculous hypothetical he can think of,
I rebuke you in the name of Jesus, you idolatrous Hume-worshiper, you.  Your puny little pool of life experience is such a tiny fraction of reality, you have no rational justification to assume that flying dogs are "ridiculous".  Just because you haven't experienced them doesn't mean other people haven't.  What's next?  You gonna deny Jesus rose from the dead because you have no experience of anybody else who resurrected after two days of being dead?
 then, yes, the example strains credulity. But that's because he went out of his way to concoct an artificially ridiculous example. That's a circular exercise. Unbelievable because he made it unbelievable.
What is it about a flying dog, that motives you to characterize it as an "artificially ridiculous" example?  Would you cite any traits of the dog that are analogous to the equally bizarre creatures mentioned in the bible?  The answer is obvious, but if you give it, you risk sounding like one of those idiots who think their own pool of life experience is a sufficient pool of knowledge from which to justify declaring what's possible and what's not.

You wouldn't want to look stupid, so you'll likely avoid answering that question directly.
5 comments:
    rockingwithhawking8/23/2014 2:37 AM 
    In addition to Steve's excellent response:
    1. Edward Goljan is basically a celebrity in modern medical education. He's quite well-known. He's a board certified pathologist, and a former professor in an Oklahoma medical school. Presumably porphyryredux can contact him via email.
 I don't believe getting response by email constitutes the type of properly thorough miracle investigation I defended against Hays' attacks above.  When you come up with the money to allow me to travel to wherever Ed is living so I can personally interview him, and pay my expenses involved in obtaining and authenticating the medical reports allegedly documenting the miracle, let me know.  So far, your "sourcing" your claims about him in wikipedia is laughable.  My time and money are important.  I don't start investigating miracles merely because one was alleged in a publicly edited encyclopedia. snip
    2. Does porphyryredux raise the "body part regeneration" objection because he objects to miracles in general and uses "body part regeneration" miracles to show miracles aren't possible, or because he's assuming human "body part regeneration" is preposterous in and of itself?
Because he thinks that if Christianity is true, restoration of missing limbs wouldn't be so rare among miracle claims.  If miracles are for testifying to the gospel, restoring missing limbs does the job no less than putting cancer into remission.   Sure is funny that the one miracle whose naturalistic explanation is the most unlikey and unreasonable, is the one that can never be verified, despite Christians who claim plenty of other miracles are verified.  If God is going to part the Red Sea to the point that it was a wall of water on either side of the Israelites (Exodus 14:22), then you won't be wasting my time with any "God-doesn't want-to-violate-their-freewill-with-too-powerful-evidence" nonsense.

Ever notice that Benny Hinn never heals missing limbs?   Would any fool argue that this is because God is allowed to heal in whatever way he chooses?  Wouldn't most sane people say the reason Hinn's miracles never include the type that constitute the acid test, is because he isn't doing miracles in the first place?
    If the former, then as Steve has alluded to, there are other classes of miracles. So even if (ad arguendo) "body part regeneration" miracles are shown to be false, it hardly disproves the possibility for the miraculous in general.
Yes, it doesn't necessarily falsify miracles in general.  But it's a pretty good probability argument.  Again, sure is strange that the only miracles we ever hear about, even assuming with Christians that some miracles have been verified as real, are those which are more susceptible to fraud or error, than restoring of missing limbs.   The one miracle we never see confirmed is precisely the one that would be the acid-test.  Why does God bother doing half-assed miracles that don't send skeptics diving their faces into the ground in solemn remorse?  If you want an employer to hire you, do you do less than your best to impress her at the interview? 
    If the latter, then it seems it's not the miraculous with which porphyryredux takes issue but rather the idea of human "body part regeneration" itself. As such, we don't really need to say anything more.
    3. However, just for fun:
    a. There are some "body parts" which can regenerate (e.g. skin, liver). Likewise, there are stories of kids regenerating their fingertips. See here for example. Or for a more scholarly take, check this out.
Irrelevant, I don't say body-part regeneration is logically impossible, I simply say that I'm highly suspicious of this idea that the almighty creator of the universe, who apparently didn't previously mind blowing people's minds with monster miracles, today does only half-assed portents in ways subjecting them to legitimate disagreement by reasonable people.  Sounds to me that it's not the work of an intelligent god, but the work of active human imaginations with a bit of willful deception and innocent ignorance thrown in. 
     So in principle, what's so absurd about "body part regeneration"?
Nothing, especially for a god who doesn't find it harder than curing fever.  So why is he always allegedly curing fevers but never missing body parts?  How about a certified brain surgeon who by choice takes a job as a mere nurse at an elementary school?  Would you respond to me "Who are you to judge him on what he wants to do?"?  Or would you respond "it's not very likely that it was solely by choice that a certified brain surgeon would take up work as a school nurse"?
    c. Of course, if it's not absurd, if it's possible future scientists and doctors could regenerate body parts for amputees or others, then doubtless future atheists would raise the objection that what previous generations thought miraculous must've been due to some then-unknown natural process. I imagine some things will never change.
Not likely:  You'd have to prove that in the past some people really did have their missing legs or arms restored before science got the capability of doing it, before atheists could make that objection, and you won't be proving any such thing in this life or any other.

        ANNOYED PINOY8/23/2014 8:11 AM   
        Good point. It's interesting that modern claims and documentation of miraculous restoration of sight isn't awe inspiring and seemingly miraculous to atheists.
It shouldn't be.  I've asked Steve Hays to provide me documentation for the one healing miracle in modern times he thinks is least susceptible to naturalistic interpretation, and he chose to engage in sophistry instead of getting down to actual business.  Should he ever escape philosophical hell, and judge Christianity worth something more than his ability to trifle about trifles, I'll be ready to analyze the evidence. 
That's probably due to the fact that modern doctors can restore certain forms of blindness. But before doctors were able to do that atheists back then probably would have claimed the restoration of eye sight as nearly impossible and therefore the Biblical accounts of miracles (and their accompanying theology) are unbelievable.
The less often something happens, the more justification to be skeptical of any claim that it actually did happen.  yeah, people win the lottery, but only a fool would immediately believe the stranger who asserted such a thing.  Yeah, golfers have gotten a hole in one before, but if I have the slightest reason to believe a particular golfer has more motive than truth in telling me such a story, I'll have full rational warrant to be skeptical.  You cannot avoid the absolute truth that the more rare some act is, the more rational we are to be skeptical absent good evidence to the contrary.  No, Steve, "good" evidence is not email, telephone and affidavits.  "Good" evidence is authenticated evidence that survives naturalistic explanations.

Let me know when you ever feel compelled to actually get down to business and start providing what you believe to be the best of your evidence for modern-day healings or other miracles.
         This reminds me of a Biblical passage: 
        Never since the world began has it been heard
that anyone opened the eyes of a man born blind.- John 9:32
       
What was impossible then, modern doctors can do now in some instances.
I don't see your point.  ancient atheists who balked immediately at claims of restored vision might have technically been wrong since some types of blindness can indeed be fixed.  But what's the point of observing that they were wrong in the past about the body's natural ability to heal from certain types of illness or disability?
        BTW, the healing of the blind man from Bethsaida in Mark 8:22-26 has the marks of authenticity because it appears to describe a modern phenomenon called post-blind syndrome. When modern doctors heal some people of blindness, they can sometimes experience post-blind syndrome, where their brains can't interpret the messages their (now working) eyes are sending them. Here's a Breakpoint article on it.
No, its perfectly reasonable to assume there were plenty of people born in the first century with a curable condition of blindness, who did not receive their sight until later in life, and who testified to how bizarre the world looked while their sight restoration was in progress.  And you unwittingly support David Hume with your answer:  You appear to think the criteria for mark of authenticity, is the degree to which a claim corresponds with verifiably true past events :)
    In my blog HERE I explain why I disagree with Craig's apparent view that special providence is never miraculous.
If even spiritually alive people cannot agree on God's providence, spiritually dead people have full rational warrant to completely dismiss the subject as nothing but sophistry and illusion.  Though they retain the right to enter the fray if there's nothing good on cable.

Demolishing Triablogue, part 3: Engwer's fallacy of using bible inerrancy as a hermeneutic

Jason Engwer makes an unexpected admission that he cannot defend the historicity of the virgin birth without engaging in eisogesis.  This is my reply to


(snip)

...I'm not denying that terminology such as we find in Romans 1:3 and John 1:45 is favorable to Lincoln's position. What I'm saying is that we need to be careful in discerning the degree to which such evidence favors his view. If all we had to go by were the letters most commonly attributed to Paul, would we conclude that Jesus was born of a virgin? No. We'd conclude that he most likely was a natural son of a man who was a descendant of David. The same goes for Mark's gospel. And the Johannine literature. And Hebrews. Similarly, 2 Peter 3:15-16 implies agreement with the Pauline literature on this subject, and James, 1 Peter, and Jude don't discuss a virgin birth. But there's a lot of other evidence to consider, including much that Lincoln doesn't address.
Jason, for what reason(s) do you refuse to interpret Paul's statement about Jesus being "seed of David" apart from the gospels of Matthew and Luke?  Is it true that you use the doctrine of bible inerrancy as a tool of interpretation (i.e., no interpretation of a bible verse can be correct, except one that harmonizes it with the rest of the bible)?

Is the case for bible inerrancy so good that it deserves to be exalted in the mind of the investigator to the status of governing hermeneutic?  My investigation into that doctrine leads me to conclude that because so many Christian scholars deny it, and they all disagree with each other about its scope and extent, bible inerrancy has nowhere near the universal acclaim that other tools of interpretation have, such as "grammar", "immediate context", and "genre".  The latter are affirmed as objective tools of interpretation by all serious bible scholars, the former is a hotly contested doctrine that not all spiritually alive people are convinced even exists.

I therefore conclude that bible inerrancy does not deserve to be exalted in our minds to the status of governing hermeneutic.  Consequently,  it does not make sense for you to assert or imply that an interpretation of a Pauline phrase that puts  him in conflict with other biblical authors, is surely an incorrect interpretation.

Therefore, you will have to do something more to falsify  the naturalistic interpretation of "seed of David" in Romans 1:3, than simply complain that such interpretation would contradict what Matthew and Luke have to say about Jesus' link to humanity.  Running afoul of bible inerrancy is about as frightful as running afoul of Benny Hinn.

It would appear that, in light of your admission quoted above, you are obligated to show that no understanding of Paul's meaning in Romans 1:3 can be correct except one that harmonizes it with the gospels of Matthew and Luke.

With other conservative apologists such as Licona admitting that the zombie resurrection in Matthew 27:52 is non-literal "special effects", and that John's preference for artistry over historical truth causes him to conflict with Mark, you will likely never close the door on the possibility that Matthew's virgin birth narrative is, like the zombie resurrection story, a case of pure fiction with no textual indicators to allow the reader to tell where the history ends and the wishful thinking begins.  The fact that other conservatives insist Licona's view amounts to a denial of inerrancy, means when we atheists see it the same way, this is not due to our being spiritually dead.  Indeed, Matthew leaves no clues in the text that the zombie resurrection story in 27:51 ff is any less literal than the crucifixion he mentioned in v. 50, so if he really was going from the historical to the non-historical, he did so in a way that was misleading at best and deceptive at worst.


Saturday, July 8, 2017

Demolishing Triablogue, part 2: Yes, Steve Hays, the virgin birth is poorly attested, Mark's silence screams

Less than a week after I showed up at Triablogue to challenge Engwer and others on their Christian claims, somebody there banned me, but did so in a way that caused my posts to disappear while leaving up the reply posts made by Engwer and others, so that the only part of my posts that survived was the part they chose to quote in their replies.

This is akin to a Christian who posts his unedited video recording of a live atheist-Christian debate to youtube, but after deciding he doesn't wish to interact with the atheist debator's remarks, removes it and posts an edited version of the video that removes all the atheist's speaker's remarks, except for a few that the Christian doesn't feel threatened by.

 Anyway, what follows is my direct point-by point reply to Steve Hays's post, followed by a justification for the argument from silence and why it is powerful in light of Mark's silence on the virgin birth.

1. A stereotypical objection to the virgin birth is that it's only attested in two of the four Gospels. Likewise, Paul is silent on the subject.
The more detailed form of the objection is that if the virgin birth was believed to be historical truth by any NT writers beyond Matthew and Luke, those other authors would surely have mentioned it, since they clearly intend to exactly "repeat" truths that their originally intended addressees were presumed to already trust in.
A potential problem with stereotypical objections is how they condition people who view an issue. If an issue is routinely framed in a particular way, it may not occur to people to think outside that framework.
It's not that complicated, Steve.  All that needs to be done is to show the proper criteria for justifying an argument from silence, and then showing that the silence of the NT authors outside of Matthew and Luke on the virgin birth, fulfills that criteria.
2. Before getting to my main point, Paul's silence is to be expected. He was an adult living in Jerusalem at the time of Christ's public ministry. It's hardly surprising that he talks about events so close to his own time and place, in the life of Christ. By contrast, the birth of Christ probably took place several years before Paul was born.
That is not biblically sound.  Yes, the birth of Christ took place several years before Paul was born, but Paul  refers to the birth of Jesus nonetheless in Galatians 4:4.  Since Paul here refers to an event in Jesus life preceding Paul's life by a few years, then, contrary to your argument, Paul cannot be presumed to stay silent about things in Jesus' life merely because they happened a few years before Paul was born.   You'll have to find something other than "it's old news!" to explain Paul's silence.
3 Apropos (1), I'd recast the issue. If anything, what's striking is not that the virgin birth wasn't recorded in more than two Gospels, but that's recorded at all. Reporting the circumstances of his conception poses a dilemma.
It also provides "reason" to believe Jesus is the son of God, so there's clearly more than mere "concern to tell the historical truth" in the motives of Matthew and Luke to tell this story.
In the nature of the case, a NT author can't mention the virgin birth without simultaneously informing his readers that Mary was pregnant out of wedlock. After all, you can't have one without the other.
I don't see your point, Matthew and Luke make it clear that this particular out-of-wedlock pregnancy was the will of God.  They solved the dilemma before it had a chance to exist. 
But the moment he says Mary was pregnant out of wedlock, that opens a can of worms. Only people who are already Christian believe the story of the virgin birth.
And as you'll find out later in my post, Matthew's likely intended readership was not unbelievers or unbelieving Jews, but Jews who already had a Christian faith.  If that theory is more likely than the theory that he wrote for unbelieving Jews, then Matthew was telling the virgin birth story only to Christians, and as such, your attempt to create a dilemma so you can argue Mathtew and Luke only mention the story because it is true, fails.
By contrast, people who aren't Christian are inclined to view the virgin birth as a cover story for a prenuptial scandal.
And since Matthew didn't write the virgin birth story for the purpose of convincing unbelievers, there is no potentially embarassing situation to speak of, and hence, no basis for an argument that Matthew and Luke wrote solely out of concern for historical truth.
Indeed, that was Joseph's initial reaction. When he discovered that she was pregnant, he was planning to divorce her, on the assumption that she had a child by another man.
Ok, so are you writing this solely for Christian readers of your blog?  Apparently so, since you know perfectly well a skeptic is not going to presume the historical accuracy of anything in the virgin birth story, as you just did.
So why would Matthew and Luke record the virgin birth unless they thought it happened?
Maybe for the same reason Pindar wrote 450 years previously that Zeus took the form of a golden mist at the time he got the virgin Danae pregnant?
You might say the reported the virgin birth despite the virgin birth. For surely they knew that by recording that story, their account invited a contrary interpretation.
So by your logic, surely Pindar knew that by recording Zeus getting Danae pregnant without taking away her virginity, he invited a contrary interpretation, hence he only told the story by constraint of the historical truth?  Either way, Matthew only "invites" a contrary interpretation if he intended his story to be used to evangelize unbelievers.  He didn't, and you offer no compelling evidence that he did.
By narrating the virginal conception of Christ, they were starting a fire they couldn't extinguish. Enemies of the faith will seize on that to discredit Jesus.
 A first century orthodox Jew would have to be a fool to think the virgin birth is true because the Christians say it's true.  Matthew surely knew the Jews, who hated Christ more particularly than anybody else, surely wouldn't be persuaded by his simply putting down in writing the kind of miracle story the Jews would surely balk at.  Luke writes for a Theophilus so that he may be sure of the things he has been previously taught about Jesus.  Matthew and Luke intended no other original audience except Christian believers.  Since there is no scandal to be inferred from the original audience of these two gospels, your scandal-based argument falls flat.
They will say this is a transparent alibi to camouflage the fact that Mary had premarital sex. Not only would that stigmatize the mother, but stigmatize the illegitimate child.
Perhaps so, but again, you need to worry about who Matthew and Luke intended as their original target audience.  First argue that Matthew and Luke were intended by the authors to be used to evangelize unbelievers. Until you do that, you are seeing potential scandals where no such potential exists.
So, if you think about it, NT writers had to overcome a disincentive to report it at all, since the very mention of it would play into the hands of their enemies.
The risk of ridicule is counterbalanced by the edifying nature of the story for existing Christians.  Mormon Prophet Joseph Smith also had to overcome a disincentive to publicly proclaim himself finder of additional inspired scripture, but without more, that argument hardly gets near suggesting his motives were honest. False prophets are often willing to suffer greatly because they are so deluded and obstinate.
They only record it because that's what happened, even though it hands enemies of the faith a propaganda coup. Sometimes you have to tell a true story knowing that people will twist the truth.
Thank you for confirming, by how quickly you draw your conclusion that the story is true, that you didn't write this for skeptics.  If you wish to re-write it for the purpose of refuting skeptics, let me know, and I'll respond to that too.
4. Now, a critic might object that my explanation misses the point. Given the rumors of a prenuptial scandal, they had to say something to squelch the rumors.
I don't know any skeptics who seriously believe the purpose of Christians concocting the virgin birth fiction was to persuade non-Christian Jews that the rumors of Mary's out-of-wedlock pregnancy was nevertheless from god.   That just makes first-century Christians more gullible than most skeptics assert.
But there are problems with that objection. For instance:
 i) That would be a counterproductive alibi. Rather than draw attention away from the specter of a prenuptial scandal, it would draw attention to the specter of a prenuptial scandal. Hostile readers will view this as a coverup.
Which only has force if you assume, as you appear to be doing, that Matthew and Luke intended their stories to be used to evangelize or refute non-Christians.  The minute you try to defeat this objection by saying "yeah, that was some of their purpose" then you make Matthew and Luke equally as gullible as the rest of the first-century laity.  Paul apparently had great difficulties persuading many Jews despite his doing so involving heated lengthy arguments.  It doesn't make much sense to assume Matthew and Luke thought their writing down a miracle story would suffice to evangelize unbelievers.  Therefore, it is more than likely that these two NT authors did not intend any other original audience, except Christians.  In that case, they were not writing to squelch rumors.  Again, your "they-wouldn't-say-such-scandalous-thing-if-it-weren't-true!" theory is largely unpersuasive, primarily because it blindly assumes, without any evidence or argument, that unbelievers were part of Matthew's and Luke's originally intended target audience.
ii) If the Gospel writers were attempting to conceal a prenuptial scandal, and if they felt free to invent a cover story, why not just say Jesus was conceived after Mary and Joseph got married? After all, the Incarnation doesn't require a virgin birth. The sinlessness of Jesus doesn't require a virgin birth.
Why didn't Pindar just say Zeus took a form "different than human" when he got Danae pregnant?  After all, the conception of Perseus doesn't require Zeus take the form of a golden mist. And again, since I deny the gospel authors were trying to invent a cover story, your questions here don't threaten my own basis for unbelief toward the virgin birth story.
If some people find the story of the virgin birth fishy, there's nothing suspicious about saying he was born to married parents. So that would be a better cover story.
But the motive of Matthew and Luke involved more than merely inventing a cover story.  Their details in the virgin birth narratives also strongly "support" the idea that Jesus is God, the Son of God, and Savior.
5. But a critic might say that misses the point. If Mary was known to be pregnant out of wedlock, then it's too late for Matthew and Luke to fabricate a cover story that denies that fact. The best they can do is to spray paint it with miraculous whitewash. But there are problems with that objection, even on its own grounds:
i) People who deny the virgin birth typically think Matthew and Luke were written about a century after the birth of Christ.
Then count me out.  My objections are persuasive even assuming Matthew and Luke finished the currently canonical form of their gospels 41 days after Jesus died.
They don't think Matthew or Luke had access to firsthand information about the circumstances surrounding his conception and birth. So what, exactly, is there to rationalize or cover up? By that late date, who knews any better what really happened?
Again, the virgin birth story doesn't just "cover" a sex scandal, it's details also "support" important doctrinal themes like Jesus being God, Son of God and Savior.
ii) Likewise, even if we take the historicity of Matthew and Luke far more seriously, how many people were really privy to the timing of Mary's pregnancy in relation to her engagement and marriage?
Again, I don't think the virgin birth narrative is a cover story.  I think it is mere fiction invented to "support" other gospel themes like Jesus being God, Son of God and Savior.  Good writers back then didn't just provide a bulleted list of factoids, they weaved romance and drama and scandal and unexpected stupidity and moral lessons around their "facts".  The later authors of the Christian pseudopigrapha must have learned the technique of embellishment from somewhere.
Other than some relatives and villagers, who else would know about it?
That depends on how much effort Christians in the first 20 years after Jesus death, went around advertising Jesus as Savior.  Acts contains a mixture of embellishment and fact., it does not suffice to explain any of these missing years.
Mary wasn't born famous. She was a nobody. She's one of those people who becomes retroactively famous in association with a famous person. Jesus himself only became relatively famous towards the end of his short life, and even then he was just a local celebrity at the time of his death.
What is this now, your third or fourth indication that you aren't writing to refute skeptics, but writing to people who presume the biblical facts about Mary and Jesus are true?
Had anyone heard of him outside some pockets in Palestine?
You have a knack for asking questions that you know no biblical or other history provides answers to.   It's called a question-framing fallacy, "First, a proper historical question must be operational-which is
merely to say that it must be resolvable in empirical terms."  Fischer at 38. Your question is not resolvable in empirical terms, unless you equate conjecture and speculation with "empirical terms", so it is a fallacious question.
So why assume, decades later–when Matthew and Luke were written–that there'd be a widespread rumor about the illegitimacy of Jesus?
I don't assume the virgin birth narrative was a cover story, because even as a skeptic, for the sake of argument, I think Matthew and Luke weren't quite that dumb.   Regardless, it could just as easily be that yes, there was some scandal going on about Mary being pregnant out of wedlock, and Matthew and Luke responded by limiting the story of the miraculous truth solely to Christian believers.  So the scandal interpretation can be true yet without implying that the story was told because it was true.  No, the Christians invented a miracle-story to explain the scandal, and their original intent was not to provide that explanation to anybody except other Christians.  You act as if Matthew was just screaming the virgin birth of Jesus in the Temple through a bullhorn in 34 a.d., but you have done exactly nothing to substantiate your view that either gospel author ever intended the story to convince the gainsayers.
iii) Presumably, the target audience for Matthew and Luke are people who don't already know about the life of Christ.
Then your presumption is false.  Only by assuming first-century people were embarrassingly more gullible than we are today, could we think Matthew seriously believed his writing down miracle stories about Jesus would be the least bit persuasive to non-Christians.  Then again, today's Christianity has some treacherously gullible people in it, as testified by the Pentecostals and TBN and KJV Onlyism and others.  So it remains at least a possibility that yes, Matthew and Luke, like gullible Christians today, seriously thought that publishing miracle stories about Jesus would convince non-Christians to believe.  And we have direct evidence, assuming apostolic authorship, that at least one apostle seriously thought mere storytelling was sufficient to compel faith.  See John 20:31.  Paul similarly thinks his written words would be sufficient to overcome the Judaizer arguments that caused his Galatian churches to abandon his gospel, Gal. 1:8-9.
So what would possess Matthew and Luke to introduce a cover story about the circumstances of his conception? That would create a problem that hadn't existed before in the mind of the reader. For the average reader would never have reason to suspect anything untoward unless Matthew and Luke gratuitously interject this subterfuge.
 I don't have a problem with gratuitous interjection.  That's what's happening every single time a gospel author says Jesus did a miracle.
Left to their druthers, I wouldn't expect any NT writer to mention the circumstances of Christ's conception if they could avoid it, since the story of the virgin birth will be used against them.

Again, you unreasonably place too much stock in the theory that Matthew and Luke were originally intended to evangelize unbelievers, when in fact you make no argument to that effect (you admit said presupposition is a "presumably"), and other evidence indicates it makes more sense to say they originally intended their gospels to do nothing more than edify and instruct those already in the Christian faith.
It's one of those dilemmas where doing the right thing looks like doing the wrong thing. What's striking, therefore, is that we have even one, much less two Gospels, that record the virgin birth. For they must do that despite the derision which that will provoke.
Why should be think telling the story was so compelling on Matthew and Luke, but not compelling for any other NT author?

You also ignore the fact that Jesus made clear that discipleship consists of future followers obeying all that HE had taught the original disciples, see that part of the Great Commission most people forget, Matthew 28:20.  Jesus never expressed or implied that his birth was in any way supernatural or that it had the slightest thing to do with the gospel, and when given the perfect opportunity to highlight his birth (Luke 11:27) he disagreed and insisted that things outside the issue of his mother's blessedness in giving birth to him, were the key to true blessedness (v. 28).  Skeptics can be confident that the virgin birth story is irrelevant to the gospel, they have god's word on it.

==================

That concludes my point-by-point reply to Hays, and I finish up with argument based on Mark's silence:

First, the main players at Triablogue are not free to say arguments from silence are automatically fallacious, for example, Engwer argues from the early patristic silence about Peter that Catholics are wrong to view Peter so highly.

Even Peter himself isn’t referred to as having papal authority among the early post-apostolic sources. Terence Smith explains:  “there is an astonishing lack of reference to Peter among ecclesiastical authors of the first half of the second century. He is barely mentioned in the Apostolic Fathers, nor by Justin and the other Apologists” (cited in Robert Eno, The Rise of the Papacy [Wilmington, Delaware: Michael Glazier, 1990], p. 15)   
Again we see Mr. Engwer engaging in an argument from silence...
Second, historians disagree on what exact criteria must be met for the argument from silence to be forceful.
Howell/:Prevenier assert the person creating the silence must a) have intended to give a full account and b) the author had no compelling reasons to leave a known fact out of his report:


Of course, an argument from silence can serve as presumptive evidence of the "silenced" event only if, as in this case, the person suppressing the information was in a position to have the information, and was purporting to give a full account of the story from which he omitted the crucial information, and if there were no compelling reasons why he should have omitted the information (other than the wish to conceal). Hence, it is usually a considerably greater leap to conclude that "silence" means "con¬cealment" than it was in the case of Shamir's selective omissions during his interview. In most cases, historians have to guess a bit more. They must presume that a suspected fact was an integral part of the story being re¬ported and so central a part of such a story that the reporter would auto¬matically have included it. That he did not becomes, then, presumptive proof that he was deliberately suppressing this piece of information.
the person suppressing the information was in a position to have the information
Under the fundamentalist assumption that Peter believed in the virgin birth story as true, and the other assumption that Mark wrote Peter's preaching, yes, Mark was in a position to "have" the virgin birth information, but because he is described as a "young man" (Mark 14:51), it is unlikely he knew of the virgin birth first-hand, but would only have known it second-hand. 

was purporting to give a full account of the story from which he omitted the crucial information
There are several reasons to characterize Mark as intending to provide a "full account" of Jesus:

First, Mark 1:1 characterizes its opening as the "beginning"  (Greek: ἀρχή) of the gospel.  Why would Mark characterize his opening as the "beginning" of the gospel?  Probably because where exactly in Jesus life the gospel "starts" was in dispute or could be misunderstood, and Mark's clarification helps end that dispute:  the gospel begins with John the Baptist baptizing Jesus in fulfillment of OT prophecy.

Second, according to standard lexicons, this Greek word means the first or first part.  Mark uses the same word in 13:8 to say that certain disasters will merely be the first of many, which means those initial disasters are to be considered the very first in the chain of disasters spoken of there.  In ἀρχή, God created people as male and female (Matthew 19:4), meaning, the very first persons were male/female. The only reason an apologist would deny the implications of cognate usage here is their prior commitment to biblical inerrancy, forcing them to insert a bit of wiggle room in the ἀρχή to allow legitimizing other gospels who start their beginning points earlier in Jesus' life than Mark did.  If they had no theological axe to grind, they would have no trouble believing the cognate usage is consistent and determinant.

Third, Mark 1:1 says it is the beginning of "the" gospel (Greek: τοῦ εὐαγγελίου, NA28, τοῦ is the definite article, its not just "a" gospel, but "the" gospel.  That is, if you want to know what "the" gospel of Jesus is, you get it by reading Mark's account of it). Again, Mark knew he could characterize his version as the beginning of "my" gospel, so why does he choose to employ the more dogmatic sounding definite article (i.e., he is giving "the" gospel)?  Most likely because he wants the reader to believe what he has written will sufficiently instruct them in gospel basics.  In other words, Mark didn't omit anything that was essential to the gospel.

Fourth, under the fundamentalist assumption that Papias is telling the truth about Mark's relation to Peter, then because Papias says Mark omitted from his gospel nothing that he heard Peter preach, a fundamentalist would be compelled to agree that Mark was intending to give a full account.  Richard Bauckham, sadly aware of what "omitted nothing" implies, weakly argues that this phrase was nothing more than literary convention, thus not literal, but a) to clarify, Papias doesn't say Mark omitted nothing from his gospel, he says Mark didn't omit from his gospel anything he heard Peter preach, , b) the literal interpretation of "omitted nothing" is supported by Papias' prior statement that Mark wrote down "whatever" he remembered of Peter's preaching;  c) the context in which Papias wrote "omitted nothing" is highly defensive of Mark's integrity and accuracy, so that the statement that he "omitted nothing", was likely intended to be taken as more significant than mere literary convention.

Sixth, Eusebius at H.E.6.14 says, on authority of 2nd century Clement of Alexandria, Peter's original audience requested that Mark write down Peter's preaching, and there is nothing in the context to suggest they only wanted a few, or certain specific subjects.  Those who have no theological axe to grind would take the statement to mean that Mark wrote down whatever he could remember of Peter's preaching.   Indeed, had you been one of the Roman citizens who heard and converted at Peter's preaching, how comprehensive would you want the written record of said preaching to be?

Seventh, yes, it's possible that Peter preached the virgin birth, but if so, questions are raised that fundies cannot easily answer:  If Peter preached the virgin birth, how could it be that Mark either didn't remember it, or remembered it but felt it wasn't as important as other gospel material Peter preached?  Are we to believe that Mark, whose theme was "Jesus is the Son of God", felt that other stories like the feeding of the crowds were more important than the shockingly unprecedented (so fundies say) circumstances of Christ's birth, which in Matthew and Luke strongly support the Markan theme that Jesus is the Son of God?

Eighth, some apologist will try to duck these problems by saying it is more likely Peter's preaching didn't preach the virgin birth in the first place, but a) you don't know of any statement in historical sources to that effect, you like the theory for no other reason than that it is the type of speculation that can get your ass out of a theological jam, nothing more; b) the consequence of employing the "Peter-didn't-preach-the-virgin-birth" is severe:  Mark's gospel is filled with gospel BASICS.  Peter was not preaching to seasoned theologians, but unbelievers who needed salvation.  So if Peter believed the virgin birth to be true, but didn't preach it to unbelievers, it is most likely because he didn't think the doctrine was a legitimate part of the gospel...which then puts him in disagreement with Matthew and Luke, who apparently think the virgin birth IS a part of the gospel.

Some apologist will say "no, Peter's silence only implies he didn't think the virgin birth to be essential doctrine", but again, Matthew's and Luke's details on the virgin birth provide strong "support" for the essential doctrine that Jesus was truly divine and the Son of God.  The idea that Peter knew and believed these strong supports for his doctrine that Jesus was the Son of God, but "chose to avoid" employing them when making his case that Jesus was the Son of God, is absurdly unlikely.  Peter was faced with unbelieving pagans in Rome, if Clement and Papias are correct about where said preaching took place.  If the fundies are correct to say there is no pre-Christiain pagan parallel to Jesus' virgin birth, that is yet another reason to say Peter would have employed this unprecedented historical fact in his preaching for the same reason apologists so violently oppose the pagan copycat thesis today: the uniqueness of Jesus' birth story argues for its truth.  Sure, you can have Peter choosing to avoid using the most powerful tools at his disposal, but the person who wins the historiography debate is the one who shows his theory is more likely than the others, not the one whose runs to the corner and simply carps "but my theory is always possible!"

Ninth, most fundies unreasonably argue that Mark omits the virgin birth because he saw no need to repeat what his audience already believed.  But this is foolish for two reasons:  a) the patristic sources linked above assert that Mark's motive in writing was exactly to repeat in writing, what the church, who had requested his writing, had already heard and believed in Peter's oral preaching, they obviously weren't asking to hear new things; b) Mark's alleged unwillingness to repeat what his intended audience already believed, is an excuse conjured up out of thin air, it is not based on any biblical, patristic or historical statement.  IF apologists be allowed to rest on crass speculation, doesn't fairness and academic integrity require that benefit be extended to skeptics?

So under the criteria of Howell, et al, for the argument from silence, Mark's and Peter's desire to convince unbelievers that Jesus was the Son of God necessarily implies, absent sheer stupidity on their part, that they would have found the virgin birth story particularly useful to their preaching purpose, and therefore, Mark's silence on Jesus' birth is explained better by the theory that he either didn't know about, or disapproved of, the virgin birth story, either of which does violence to the fundie position.

Historian Gilbert Garraghan has slightly different criteria:


 To be valid, the argument from silence must fulfill two conditions: the writer[s] whose silence is invoked in proof of the non-reality of an alleged fact, would certainly have known about it had it been a fact; [and] knowing it, he would under the circumstances certainly have made mention of it. When these two conditions are fulfilled, the argument from silence proves its point with moral certainty. (§ 149a)

 would certainly have known about it had it been a fact
 No problem: if as most fundies believe, Mark was the naked man in Mark 14:51, he was in a position to have known, before authoring a gospel, that Jesus was born of a virgin.  It is unlikely, if the doctrine be true, that the apostles somehow never heard of it or didn't discuss it enough to keep it in memory.

he would under the circumstances certainly have made mention of it
 That has already been established by the prior arguments in this post.  The virgin birth details strongly "support" Jesus being the Son of God, which most scholars say was Mark's intended theme.  Here's what one scholar says in the inerrantist-driven New American Commentary:
 

8.  Occasion and Purposes
..Mark clearly was not content merely to give an account of the life and teaching of Jesus. He wanted to set forth his own understanding of Jesus and thus develop his Christology. He wanted to do so in such a way as to minister to the needs of his own church. He used and applied the accounts at his disposal—something Christian teachers and preachers have been doing ever since. Mark’s concept of Jesus was that he was fully human and fully divine, both Son of Man and Son of God. Furthermore he was both the Jewish Messiah (Christ, Son of David) and the Lord of the Gentiles. Such a balanced Christology as Mark’s weighs against the theory that he was battling a heresy. Mark was especially concerned to emphasize the suffering and death of Jesus as a ransom for sinners.
Brooks, J. A. (2001, c1991). Vol. 23: Mark (electronic e.).
Logos Library System; The New American Commentary (Page 29).
Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers
Gee...how well does the virgin birth story support Mark's intended theme of Jesus being Son of God and the Jewish Messiah?   Mark wanted to show Jesus was Son of Man and Son of God, so having God come down to earth via virgin birth from a typical female virgin without the aid of human seed, would have underscored his points very strongly.
 
Tenth, courts of law are concerned with making sure juries get the straight admissible and relevant facts as much as possible, and therefore, the "rules of evidence" American Courts use, are a reliable guide for determining whether evidence is admissible.  As luck would have it, American jurisprudence lays out the rules juries must use to evaluate arguments based on silence.  It says, quoting the undisputed authority of Wigmore, that American common law has always allowed juries to take a witness's failure to assert a fact, when it would have been natural for the witness to mention it, to be the functional equivalent of a positive statement that the alleged fact is false:


Common law traditionally has allowed witnesses to be impeached by their previous failure to state a fact in circumstances in which that fact naturally would have been asserted. 3A J. Wigmore, Evidence § 1042, p. 1056 (Chadbourn rev. 1970). Each jurisdiction may formulate its own rules of evidence to determine when prior silence is so inconsistent with present statements that impeachment by reference to such silence is probative.
Cunningham v. Commonwealth, 501 SW 3d 414, 418 - Ky: Supreme Court 2016
quoting v. Anderson, 447 U.S. 231, 100 S.Ct. 2124, 65 L.Ed.2d 86 (1980).


If Courts of law are always applying their rules of evidence to help fact-finders decide what actually happened, then it would seem only a foolish Christian apologist would trifle that court is "too different" from historical analysis.  We just saw that historians agree there are times when the argument from silence is valid, so that's something historiography has in common with Wigmore's above-cited rule.  Court proceedings might be "formal", but it is only for the good goal of getting to the the actual truth, that court rules instruct the judge on what should be admissible and relevant.

Well then...did Mark write "in circumstances in which that fact [of the virgin birth of Jesus] naturally would have been asserted..."?

Hays did his best to argue that we shouldn't expect Mark to have mentioned the virgin birth, but his arguments are unconvincing, here's a recap:

Hays' reason for Paul's silence is that "the birth of Christ probably took place over several years before Paul was born", but this is nonsense, Paul says what he does about Jesus because he considers himself divinely inspired and an apostle (1st Cor. 9:1).  Paul also curiously uses the OT to support his notion that the gospel has already gone out into the world, despite the fact that he cites such OT text a few years after the public earthly ministry of Jesus (Romans 10), Paul mentions Abe and David too (Romans 4), so Paul cannot be presumed to avoid mentioning something merely because it happened before he was born.  If he can quote Abe and David to support his theology, what in blazes could have possessed him to think that the commentary by God himself, coming to earth as Jesus just a few years before Paul wrote, was less reliable for supporting theological points, than the more obscure OT?  Isn't the word of Jesus the "later light" that tells the world the "true" meaning of the OT?

Hays' next argument is that it is astounding that the virgin birth would have been recorded at all if indeed it be false, since it opened up Christians to a charge that this is a mere cover story for Mary getting pregnant out of wedlock, therefore, to record the story at all is to testify to it's historical veracity.  This too is foolish, since he assumes Luke and Matthew were intended to evangelize unbelievers, when in fact Hays doesn't want skeptics to say first century people were excessively gullible.  If that is the case, then Matthew and Luke can hardly have believed they could break down unbeliever-resistance by simply publishing their written versions of Jesus' life.  Jerome, writing in the 4th century and thus with a solid 200 + years of history behind him on which to draw, asserts Matthew wrote "for the sake of those of the circumcision who believed" (Live of Illustrious Men at 3)

Inerrantist scholar Craig Blomberg asserts in the NAC that the larger context of that quote seems to indicate Jerome was there talking about a Gospel to the Hebrews, which was a corrupt form of Matthew Jerome errantly attributed to Matthew.  I think Blomberg is really stretching here.  First, Jerome plainly talks about the gospel he thinks Matthew wrote.  What are the odds he only means the heretical gospel so controversially connected to Matthew, and not the genuine gospel?  Second, yes, in ch. 2, Jerome mentions the GoH, but he qualifies that it was a thing he recently translated into Greek, and a document Origin sometimes makes use of.  These qualifications make clear that Jerome thinks the GoH's authenticity is uncertain at best.  Therefore, when in ch. 3 he candidly asserts that Matthew wrote a gospel, he likely isn't still talking about the GoH, but rather the Matthian gospel that was non-controversial in the churches.  Therefore, when he says there that Matthew wrote for those Jews "who believed", he is saying apostle Matthew wrote the authentic gospel for Christian Jews.

 If this be so, then Hays' problem with the idea of gospel authors mentioning a scandal, disappears.  If Matthew was writing to Christians, then saying Jesus was born of a virgin  would cause no more scandal than the writing down of any other oral tradition would.  In fact, the Christians for whom Matthew wrote would likely know the Jews would mock such a story as an invention, and therefore the Christians would likely guard the story and only permit it to be taught to serious converts.

Matthew cannot be credited with an authorial purpose merely because of how the gospel happened to be used later, anymore than a modern author can be credited with a purpose to use his book as a coaster simply because that's how somebody else outside his intended readership put it to use.


Hays also says he wouldn't expect Paul to mention the virgin birth, but here again, Paul is willing to mention the resurrection of Jesus and repeat it over and over, was this not scandalous to the Jews, as Matthew alleges (27:63 ff)?  Apparently then, fear that the Jews would find the story scandalous, is, alone, insufficient to justify saying a NT author would avoid mentioning a subject.  On the other hand, Paul repeatedly asserts what he thinks the gospel consists of, and it's always the two things that scandalize non-believing Jews far more than a virgin birth story:  Christ died to pay for sin, and rose from the dead three days later (1st Cor. 15).  Paul scandalized unbelievers so much, the last half of the book of Acts primarily consists of how this got Paul arrested and sent to Rome to face Caesar.  Paul would constantly go to the synagogues (places of worship for orthodox Jews) and debate long and loud that Jesus was the Christ.  Acts 17:17, 18:4, 19:8-9.

More controversially, Paul disagrees with modern-day Calvinists and asserts the OT is sufficient to prepare the Christian minister to preach the gospel (2nd Timothy 3:16-17), i.e., that is, the OT as interpreted by Paul.  But even with that caveat, Paul is not just being silent with respect to the earthly ministry of Jesus.  His claim that the OT as interpreted by him is sufficient to equip Christian ministers for every good work, logically excludes any need to use anything beyond Paul's understanding of the OT to so equip, and that means logically excluding whatever Matthew or Luke have to say, thus logically having Paul exclude any need to equip Christian ministers with the virgin birth doctrine.

But Paul's silence on the life of Jesus and other such issues go beyond the scope of this already-long post.

In short, Hays' attempt to provide objective reasons consistent with his fundamentalist view of the bible, for why most NT authors are silent on the virgin birth, fails. Jesus positively asserted that it is what HE teaches, that is what his disciples must follow (Luke 11:27-28, Matthew 28:20), Jesus never taught that his birth had anything to do with the gospel, and when put into a circumstance where it would have been natural for him to affirm the blessedness of his mother giving him birth, he rebukes the lady who calls him blessed, and reminds the hearers that blessedness is rather what anybody has when they hear the word of God and do it (Luke 11:27-28).  This fulfills Wigmore's rule that the silence should be taken as a positive statement that the alleged fact is false.

Jason Engwer doesn't appreciate the strong justification for skepticism found in John 7:5

Bart Ehrman, like thousands of other skeptics, uses Mark 3:21 and John 7:5 to argue that Jesus' virgin birth (VB) is fiction.  Jason Eng...