Showing posts sorted by relevance for query empty tomb. Sort by date Show all posts
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Tuesday, December 19, 2023

Jason Engwer doesn't appreciate the strong justification for skepticism found in John 7:5

Bart Ehrman, like thousands of other skeptics, uses Mark 3:21 and John 7:5 to argue that Jesus' virgin birth (VB) is fiction.  Jason Engwer of Triablogue tries desperately to justify an interpretation of those texts that won't attack the VB.  Jason loses. I explain why.  These are my two replies to Engwer's two articles at Triablogue.

At the outset, there are several skeptical arguments that render Engwer's trifles moot.  One is that nobody in the history of Christianity can show that any NT bullshit applies to us today.  Ignoring the bible is about as dangerous as ignoring the Apocrypha.  So skeptics who really hate the bible, need not bother with Engwer's ceaseless trifles.  They can be reasonable to completely ignore the bible.


Ehrman is still citing passages like Mark 3:21-35 and John 7:1-10 as evidence against the virgin birth. See here for a post I wrote a couple of years ago that responds to Ehrman's use of that argument. Remarkably, he claimed in his webinar today that Jesus' brothers didn't know Jesus was "anything special" in John 7 (first presentation, 47:00). That passage comes just after Jesus' miraculous feeding of thousands of people and other highly public miracles, including ones done when his brothers were nearby (John 2:1-12). The "works" Jesus' brothers refer to in John 7:3-4 surely at least included miracles, given the immediate surrounding context and the nature of Jesus' public ministry in general up to that point. So, the brothers (like Mary in Mark 3) weren't objecting to a lack of miracles.

One wonders why Jason is not a presuppositionalist, after all, the bible tells him Jesus did miracles, so that launches Jason all the way past any possibility of suggesting that John lied about some things and told the truth about others.  Well, for numerous reasons we over here in skeptical-land do not accept biblical inerrancy.  Nor do we presume that the testimony of a single witness will always be either lies or truth, instead, we remain open to the possibility that the testimony contains some truth and some lies.

The skeptical position is that the reason Jesus' brothers don't believe in him is because they think his miracles are purely naturalistic stunts, i.e., John is telling the truth about their unbelief, but he is lying about Jesus' miracles.  Incidentally, Jesus himself reluctantly admits that his followers were not following because of his miracles, but only because of the free food (John 6:26), which justifies us to suppose those followers did not think the miracles were genuinely supernatural.  There is nothing unreasonable in alleging that some "facts" in the gospels are less consistent with Christian theories and more consistent with skeptical theories.  There is no rule obligating anybody to assume that ancient writers with a theological agenda told only truth, so that the only theories to account for their statements must be limited to theories that uphold them as honest authors.  Engwer continues;

As my response to Ehrman linked above explains, the Mark 3 passage likewise explicitly refers to Jesus' performance of miracles, even his enemies' acknowledgement of some of his miracles. 

But again, when we skeptics say the reason Jesus' brothers thought him insane (Mark 3:21) was because they thought his 'miracles' were total bullshit, we are not violating any normative canon of historiography or hermeneutics.  Jason's defense seems to be that because other things in Mark 3 say Jesus' enemies acknowledged the miracles, today's unbeliever is forced to discard any explanatory theory of 3:21 that says the miracles were fake.  

Sorry, we don't live in Jason's head.  We readily acknowledge that a theory that Jesus' miracles were purely naturalistic would not harmonize with the Pharisees "acknowledging" that Jesus does miracles by the demonic power.  But we don't assume that Mark always tells the truth, and in this we break no established rule of historiography or hermeneutics.  My view is that Mark is simply creating fiction by having Jesus' enemies 'acknowledge' his employment of supernatural power.

We can also go at this from the other direction and ask how absurd it would be to trifle that in 3:21, the brothers merely think Jesus is insane because he is misusing supernatural power.  In other words, Engwer thinks the brothers' attitude was something like "god has given you the ability to work genuinely supernatural miracles, but you are abusing that gift".  Several reasons justify the skeptical rejection of that transparently ad hoc theory:

First, 1st century Judaism was an honor/shame culture, in which personal slurs were taken far more seriously than they are in modern America.  To accuse another of insanity is to accuse them of being possessed by a demon (John 10:20).  If Engwer's theory is correct, then Jesus' brothers and thus somebody whom Engwer thinks later became apostle James, committed the unpardonable sin before Jesus died (Mark 3:29-30).  Nice going.

Second, for them to acknowledge that Jesus' miracles were genuinely supernatural, but to also refuse to believe in him, sounds a lot like the brothers' knowledge of Deut. 13, which says even false prophets could sometimes do genuinely supernatural miracles.  This means the brothers, under pressure to avoid dishonoring Jesus, had decided that because Jesus was teaching contrary to Mosaic law, his doing of miracles either meant nothing, or meant demon possession.  Did Jesus' brothers think Jesus was a false prophet?

Third, it was Jesus himself who clarified that his own relatives refused to properly honor him (Mark 6:4).  So they were probably feeling constrained in that honor/shame culture to defend Jesus against such accusations, but they found the evidence of his dishonesty too overwhelming and decided that interests of honor required that they denounce him.

Fourth, we can be reasonable so assume that in such honor/shame culture, the starting presumption of the family was that Jesus was an honorable person.  So if they took a position that he wasn't honorable, they probably did not merely give in to echos of rumors from enemies...they would have attended a few of his magic shows to verify for themselves whether Jesus 'miracles' were genuinely supernatural or merely staged tricks.  In light of Mark 6:4 and his family becoming his 'enemies', we can reasonably conclude that they only became his enemies because they thought Jesus' miracles were purely naturalistic (i.e., he was a first century Benny Hinn). 

I now respond to Engwer's longer article on the subject:

Michael Shermer And Bart Ehrman On Christmas And Christianity

Michael Shermer recently had Bart Ehrman on his YouTube channel. There are too many problems with the comments made by both of them for me to interact with everything.

Then Jason forfeits the right to complain if counter-apologists think his articles raise too many points so that they won't interact with the majority of such points.  

After acknowledging that the absence of any mention of the virgin birth in Mark's gospel isn't a persuasive argument that Mark was unaware of the concept,

 Then I disagree with Ehrman.  Jesus did not teach about his birth to his disciples, so if Peter is the inspiration behind Mark's gospel, we would not expect Peter to talk about the VB. But if the VB is true, we would expect that Mark, likely not writing earlier than 63 a.d. or 30 years after Jesus died, would have heard the VB stories. The VB would certainly have supported Mark's theory that Jesus is the divine Son of God.  The notion that Mark knew about the VB, thought it true, but merely "chose to exclude it", is transparently founded on a blind presumption of bible inerrancy, in which Engwer simply cannot allow that two biblical authors disagreed on any bit of Jesus' history.  Sorry, Engwer's committment to bible inerrancy does not obligate non-Christians to first exhaust all inerrancy-favoring explanations of Mark's omission of the VB story before we can become reasonable to employ a skeptical explanation for this omission.  It isn't like bible inerrancy is a major tenant of historiography, or demanded by historians.  And i show elsewhere that Josh McDowell and John Warwick Montgomery lied about "Aristotle's Dictum".  So no, there's not even any requirement that we presume the ancient witness is telling the truth until we can prove them wrong.  The more objective procedure when dealing with third-party testimony is to neither believe it nor reject it, but suspend judgment until the veracity of their statements can be evaluated.  Exactly how much evidence that should be, is not up to Engwer.

Ehrman appeals to Mark 3:21-35 to argue that Jesus' family shouldn't have reacted to him as they did in that passage if the virgin birth had occurred. (Ehrman refers to Mark 2, but the passage he has in mind is actually the one I just referenced in chapter 3.) That's a bad argument that's been circulating among critics of the infancy narratives for a long time. It ought to be abandoned. Earlier in Mark's gospel, we read about Jesus' performance of miracles as an adult, and the verse just after the opening one in the passage under consideration refers to those miracles again (Mark 3:22). The passage just cited not only refers to miracles, but also refers to the acknowledgment of those miracles by Jesus' opponents.

In light of 3:21, I hold that Mark's report about the Jews acknowledging the supernatural character of his miracles to be fiction.  If I wrote in a letter to my church that even the barbarians down here in South America acknowledge that I employ genuinely supernatural power, what fool would pretend that this must stand as true until proven wrong?  Answer:  Engwer and other dolts who think Josh McDowell's "Aristotle's Dictum" is a bit of historiographical objectivity.  They are high on crack too.

So, it wasn't a situation in which they didn't think there were any miracles occurring in association with Jesus.

And there you go again, blindly pretending that the only plausible explanations for a comment by Mark are those that presuppose his accuracy and honesty, when in fact we are outsiders who don't know jack shit about Mark's actual level of honesty or credibility, and no rule of historiography obligates anybody to presume truth until something Mark said is refuted.  Does Engwer believe every statement ever made by a stranger, a person whose history of honesty or dishonesty is totally unknown to him?  If the checkable parts of a stranger's story square up with history, does that obligate us to believe the non-checkable parts?  Gee, I didn't know it would be so easy to find a murder suspect innocent in a circumstantial case:  the checkable parts of his story proved true (he was near the store at the time of the robbery), so we are obligated to trust in the non-checkable parts (like his statement that he did not kill the store clerk).

People weren't opposing him because of a lack of miracles.They were opposing him for other reasons (his failing to be the sort of Messiah they wanted, the problems he was causing with the Jewish authorities, etc.).

But as I already explained, in such honor/shame culture, the brothers would have felt compelled to investigate the spectacle Jesus was creating, they would not have simply heard that he did miracles, and then dismissed it as mere misuse of divine power.   

It would be absurd to suggest that Jesus' miracles as an adult didn't persuade these people, but that they would have been persuaded if a virgin birth or some other miracle had occurred a few decades earlier. After verse 22, the passage goes on to refer to Jesus' response to the charge that he's empowered by Satan and some comments he made about the blasphemous nature of what his opponents were doing in dismissing his miracles as demonic. That's the context in which his relatives behaved the way Ehrman mentioned.

Correct:  And Mark was lying when putting the "demonic miracles" excuse in the mouth of the Jews, for all the reasons I've listed, and there was never any legitimate rule of historiography, still less one universally accepted among historians, that says I'm stuck with presuming the truth of an ancient story unless I can prove it wrong.  So if a skeptic chose to completely ignore the bible as opposed to trifling with Engwer about details of Mark's wording, they would be perfectly justified.

You could argue that the relatives were unaware of the miracles the other people in the same passage were aware of (even as far away as Jerusalem, as verse 22 tells us), but that's an unlikely scenario. It wouldn't make sense to claim that people other than Jesus' relatives could oppose him in spite of his miracles, yet his relatives wouldn't. We have reason to think it's likely that the relatives opposing Jesus knew of his recent miracles as an adult, but even if we didn't have reason to believe that, the possibility that they would behave as they did in Mark 3 while knowing of miracles associated with Jesus is more plausible than Ehrman suggests.

 That is total bullshit.  They were obligated in the honor/shame culture to personally check out Jesus' miracles, so when they call him insane, it's likely after they've conducted an examination, and drawn the conclusion that his miracles were purely naturalistic tricks.  That's a good explanation for why his relatives would call him insane...doing non-supernatural tricks to convince people you are the messiah, would have been sufficiently dishonorable so as to explain the specter of Jesus' own family thinking him insane and refusing to believe in him.

If you want to read more on this subject, I've responded to Ehrman's objection at length, as it was formulated by Raymond Brown, here and here.  Shortly after the segment just mentioned, Ehrman goes on to cite John 8:41 as evidence that Jesus' opponents were implying that he was conceived out of wedlock, which allegedly suggests that the author of the fourth gospel wasn't aware of the concept of the virgin birth or rejected it. Actually, if John 8:41 is meant to imply Jesus' illegitimate conception, that would be corroboration of the infancy narratives, which report that the pregnancy was premarital.

No, the Jews in John 8:41 by implying Jesus was concieved outside of wedlock would not have left open an option that maybe his father was God.  They would have meant Jesus was sired by a human being out of wedlock.  But no, Engwer grasps at any straw he can possible trifle with to make it seem like disagreement with his fundamentalist view doesn't leave the skeptic any other option except intentional stupidity. 

You'd expect at least some of Jesus' enemies to accuse him of being illegitimate under such circumstances.

And we don't expect limited stories about Jesus to include every possible accusation that his enemies would have hurled at him. 

It doesn't follow that the author of the fourth gospel was unaware of the virgin birth or opposed the concept.

That's right, and nobody is saying "it follows", rather we argue that our conclusion is reasonable.  It is a very popular mistake in Christian apologetics to misrepresent the skeptic as pretending that his conclusions necessarily follow from the evidence.  Nobody seriously thinks their theory necessarily follows from the evidence...except apologists who live inside their own heads, like Jason Engwer, who thinks his being wrong in his working presuppositions is equally as intolerably foolish as the possibility that God might become an atheist.

Ehrman is interpreting John 8:41 in a way that supports a traditional Christian view of the infancy narratives, yet he's acting as though his interpretation is evidence against such a view. (I'm agnostic about whether John 8:41 is alluding to an illegitimate conception of Jesus. I think the evidence is ambiguous.)

Then you cannot balk if somebody else interprets the evidence differently than you.  But yes, I'd expect you to post 1000 articles about it since you worship the inerrancy of your own mind.  All anybody has to do is Google triablogue and Einfield Poltergeist to see just how fanatically trifling you can get in your eternal quest to always have the upper hand in an argument.  We would be justified to say Jason Engwer deliberately violates Paul's word-wrangling prohibition in 2nd Tim. 2:14.

...Given how much Jesus differed from what many ancient Jews wanted the Messiah to be,

No, how much Jesus differed from the messiah the OT predicted, a military messiah. 

how Jesus and the early Christians were treated by the Jewish and Roman authorities, etc., it's easy to see why many people would prefer to reject Christianity. The same Jews who opposed Christianity in the ancient world also acknowledged Jesus' performance of miracles (which they often dismissed as demonic),

No, we can be reasonable to say Mark was putting fiction in the mouths of the Jews when pretending they acknowledged the supernatural character of his works. 

acknowledged his empty tomb,

Because the bible tells you so.  But the original empty tomb story was nothing more than the women noticing an unidentified man near the open tomb, then running away when the stranger said Jesus is risen and continues on toward Galilee.  So the later 3 gospels with their more detailed resurrection appearance narratives are merely embellishing the earlier and simpler form of the story.

 The fact that the disciples considered the women's story bullshit (Luke 24:11) is a case of first century eyewitnesses who find the story of an empty tomb to be bullshit.  Luke was probably including some truth in that verse, but lying about nearly everything else because there is no rule of historiography that obligates anybody to first believe everything in testimony until some of it can be proved wrong.

Though Shermer and Ehrman make much of Jewish rejection of Christianity, they don't address the fact that the Jewish rejection was anticipated in the Old Testament and predicted again in the New Testament, such as when Paul wrote that "a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in" (Romans 11:25). And that's what's unfolded in the history of the world. There's been an ongoing rejection of Jesus among the Jewish people as the kingdom he established has gradually grown in the Gentile world (Psalm 110:1, Daniel 2:35, Matthew 13:31-32).

There you have it folks, Jason Engwer, apologist extraordinaire, knows that something about Jesus is true because the bible tells him so.  But the fact that plenty of Jews rejected Christianity in the first century sufficiently explains why they did later.  How hard would it be for even a stupid ancient historian to predict that a religion that was attacked in his own day would be attacked in the future?  LOL. 

So, we've got a couple of skeptics talking about a Jewish Messianic figure who's had a major influence on their culture, and they're having that conversation during a month-long season of celebrating his birth that billions of Gentiles participate in every year.

And the vast majority of those Gentiles couldn't give a fuck less about the Jesus-component of Christmas unless it happens to be connected to their child's school-play, or a story that somebody reads them. 

They're objecting that this Jewish Messianic figure has been rejected by the Jewish people, something both the Old Testament and Jesus' earliest followers predicted.

And a prediction that even a stupid person could make. 

4 comments:
TheFlyingCouch12/09/2021 9:46 AM☍
"Ehrman goes on to cite John 8:41 as evidence that Jesus' opponents were implying that he was conceived out of wedlock, which allegedly suggests that the author of the fourth gospel wasn't aware of the concept of the virgin birth or rejected it."
And Ehrman's a scholar, right? Is John really not thought to be capable of writing down what opponents thought?

Yes he was, and we are reasonable to assume he doesn't mention the VB because he thought it false.  It would have served his purposes to allege that the Holy Spirit caused the logos to become human. But Christian scholars cannot even agree on whether John was aware of the Synoptic traditions before he wrote.

Is stating what opponents thought only capable of being what John thinks himself, but in someone else's mouth?

No, but again, we have reasons to say John created fictional dialogue.  And that's after I've read everything in Lydia McGrew's "Eye of the Beholder". 

Jason Engwer12/09/2021 10:42 AM☍
There's a lot of bad reasoning during the program on a lot of topics. And Shermer and Ehrman have been prominent skeptics, often interacting with Christianity in the process, for decades.

 And because Engwer is demonstrably too chickenshit to debate those men live  Engwer happily confines himself to the backwaters of "posted blog piece" despite knowing that the vast majority of people prefer a living voice over written argument.

Jason Engwer12/20/2021 1:02 PM☍
Erik Manning has produced a good video overview of the issues surrounding Mark 3 and the virgin birth. It's less than five minutes long, but covers a lot of ground.

 So if the skeptic says he covers too many points, you forfeit the right to balk, since your yourself refuse to answer videos that make a lot of points.

Monday, June 18, 2018

Cold Case Christianity: the bible is racist and imperfect

This is my reply to an article by J. Warner Wallace entitled




Recently, the editors of GQ (Gentlemen’s Quarterly online) released its list of 21 Books You Don’t Have to Read. They boldly claimed, “…not all the Great Books have aged well. Some are racist and some are sexist, but most are just really, really boring. So we—and a group of un-boring writers—give you permission to strike these books from the canon.” The Bible was smack dab in the middle of their list.

You may recognize a few other classic works on GQ’s roster of “racist,” “sexist,” and “boring” books: Salinger’s The Catcher in the Rye, Hemingway’s The Old Man and the Sea and A Farewell to Arms, Twain’s Adventures of Huckleberry Finn, Tolkien’s The Lord of the Rings, and Swift’s Gulliver’s Travels. These books were listed for a variety of reasons, but the editor’s explanation for the inclusion of the Bible was particularly harsh: “It is repetitive, self-contradictory, sententious, foolish, and even at times ill-intentioned.”

While many may find those words to be rather severe, they actually sounded familiar to me when I first read the GQ article. As an atheist, I can remember saying something similar to a Christian co-worker. But that all changed as I began to investigate the Bible using the skills I had developed as a detective. I’ve now come to appreciate the Bible above all other texts (religious or otherwise), largely because the editors of GQ are wrong:

The Bible’s not racist: The Bible doesn’t divide people based on their racial identity.
 Jesus held off granting a healing request to a Gentile women until she cleverly responded to his racist remark by admitting it was correct to characterize the Jews as children and herself as a dog:
 22 And a Canaanite woman from that region came out and began to cry out, saying, "Have mercy on me, Lord, Son of David; my daughter is cruelly demon-possessed."
 23 But He did not answer her a word. And His disciples came and implored Him, saying, "Send her away, because she keeps shouting at us."
 24 But He answered and said, "I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel."
 25 But she came and began to bow down before Him, saying, "Lord, help me!"
 26 And He answered and said, "It is not good to take the children's bread and throw it to the dogs."
 27 But she said, "Yes, Lord; but even the dogs feed on the crumbs which fall from their masters' table."
 28 Then Jesus said to her, "O woman, your faith is great; it shall be done for you as you wish." And her daughter was healed at once. (Matt. 15:22-28 NAU)
 Inerrantist scholar has to trifle that the wording here suggests the Gentiles are not wild dogs, but pet dogs, as if this reduces the stigma!



15:25–28 The woman merely repeats her plea for help but also kneels. Whatever her intention, Matthew will see some kind of worship here. Jesus pursues the question of the distinction between Jews and Gentiles (v. 26). Jews frequently insulted Gentiles by calling them “dogs,”— the wild, homeless scavengers that roamed freely in Palestine. But the diminutive form here (kynarion rather than kyōn) suggests a more affectionate term for domestic pets, particularly since these dogs eat under the children’s table. Even at best, Jesus’ remarks still strike the modern reader as condescending. Jesus apparently wants to demonstrate and stretch this woman’s faith. The “children” must then refer to Israel and the “bread” to the blessings of God on the Jews, particularly through Jesus’ healing ministry. The woman disputes none of Jesus’ terms but argues that, even granting his viewpoint, he should still help her (v. 27). The Gentiles should receive at least residual blessings from God’s favor on the Jews. In fact, the Old Testament from Gen 12:1–3 onwards promised far more than residue. The woman reveals a tenacious faith even as a Gentile (v. 28). Jesus explicitly commends this faith, closely paralleling the narrative of 8:5–13 (as does also his instantaneous healing from a distance). Matthew’s distinctives underline her faith by the addition both of her words in v. 22 and of Jesus’ praise here. “Your request is granted” more literally reads let it be done for you as you wish.
Blomberg, C. (2001, c1992). Vol. 22: Matthew (electronic ed.).
Logos Library System; The New American Commentary (Page 244).
Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.

 Evangelical scholar Hagner admits what "dog" really meant:



This word, used first by Jesus and then by the woman, recalls that Gentiles were sometimes likened to the unclean dogs that roamed the streets (cf. 7:6). κυρίων, “masters,” suggests the superiority of Israel as the people of God over the Gentiles.
Hagner, D. A. (2002). Vol. 33B:
Word Biblical Commentary : Matthew 14-28.
Word Biblical Commentary (Page 442). Dallas: Word, Incorporated.


 Wallace continues:
Skin color, along with other external human features, are unimportant to God.
But it was apparently important enough to the Jews that black people had to remind Jews to stop focusing on skin color:
 6 Do not stare at me because I am dark, because I am darkened by the sun. My mother's sons were angry with me and made me take care of the vineyards; my own vineyard I had to neglect. (Cant. 1:6 NIV)
 Wallace continues:
According to the Bible, God created humans – all humans – in His image (Genesis 1:27), and unlike the rest of us, God doesn’t judge people based on their outward appearance, but instead “looks on the heart” (1 Samuel 16:7).
If God doesn't judge by outward appearance, he probably didn't give the command requiring all Gentile men among the Hebrews to get circumcised:
48 "But if a stranger sojourns with you, and celebrates the Passover to the LORD, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near to celebrate it; and he shall be like a native of the land. But no uncircumcised person may eat of it. (Exod. 12:48 NAU)
 Numbers 31:18 says that among the Midianite women captured in war, only the females whose hymens are still intact can be spared the death-penalty:
 17 "Now therefore, kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman who has known man intimately.
 18 "But all the girls who have not known man intimately, spare for yourselves. (Num. 31:17-18 NAU)
 One has to wonder how Moses and his army men figured out which of the women were virgins and which weren't.  But we can be fairly sure that it involved something a bit more physically intrusive than prayer.

The Apostle Paul wrote that “there is neither slave nor free, there is no male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus,” (Galatians 3:28), and the Apostle Peter said that, “God shows no partiality, but in every nation anyone who fears him and does what is right is acceptable to him” (Acts 10:34-35).
And yet, long after the Great Commission wherein the risen Christ told the original apostles that they were to evangelize the Gentiles (Matthew 28:19-20), we still find them intentionally limiting their efforts solely to the Jews, and allocating the entire Gentile mission field to Paul alone, Galatians 2:9,
When Martin Luther King Jr. – a Bible believing, Baptist minister – argued for the dignity and equality of African Americans, he did so based on the teaching of Scripture. This alone is adequate reason to read the Bible.
Equality in the bible doesn't mean it contains no inequality or racist statements. Only those who believe in bible "inerrancy" would engage in such a broad brushing assumption.
The Bible’s not sexist: Given the cultural setting in which the Bible was written, it’s unfair to claim it is sexist.
 Is that why the bible says girl babies make the mother unclean longer than boy babies?
 2 "Speak to the sons of Israel, saying: 'When a woman gives birth and bears a male child, then she shall be unclean for seven days, as in the days of her menstruation she shall be unclean.
 3 'On the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised.
 4 'Then she shall remain in the blood of her purification for thirty-three days; she shall not touch any consecrated thing, nor enter the sanctuary until the days of her purification are completed.
 5 'But if she bears a female child, then she shall be unclean for two weeks, as in her menstruation; and she shall remain in the blood of her purification for sixty-six days. (Lev. 12:2-5 NAU)
 Reminder to the apologists:  the text says the mother remains UNCLEAN longer upon birth of a baby girl. It is neither expressed nor implied that the extra time was to allow more bonding between mother and infant.  UNCLEAN is a yucky state of affairs, never something positive.

Wallace continues:
In fact, Jesus’ continuous interaction with women was countercultural. He had female disciples, many of his closest friends were women (i.e. Martha and her sister, Mary), and some of his most profound theological teaching was first shared with women (as in John 11:20-27).
He also talked down to his own mother:
  3 When the wine ran out, the mother of Jesus said to Him, "They have no wine."
 4 And Jesus said to her, "Woman, what does that have to do with us? My hour has not yet come."
 5 His mother said to the servants, "Whatever He says to you, do it." (Jn. 2:3-5 NAU)
And Jesus dishonorably refused to agree with somebody who considered his mother honorable:
  27 While Jesus was saying these things, one of the women in the crowd raised her voice and said to Him, "Blessed is the womb that bore You and the breasts at which You nursed."
 28 But He said, "On the contrary, blessed are those who hear the word of God and observe it." (Lk. 11:27-28 NAU)
 Wallace continues:
It was a woman who first acknowledged the identity of Jesus as the Messiah (the Samaritan woman at the well in the Gospel of John),
 That's in the gospel of John, the latest of the gospels, and you don't have the first fucking clue whether this story is real or just made up by John, in light of conservative NT scholars Craig Evans and Mike Licona and their belief that John puts in Jesus' mouth words he never said.
and it was a woman (Mary) who first discovered the empty tomb.
But the low status of women might be inferred from the fact that the women are never credited by Paul or other apostles in their actual preaching of the resurrection.   Its not about who was first to see the empty tomb, but who Jesus actually appeared to.  And despite Jesus appearing to the women in all 4 gospels, the women are never cited as resurrection witnesses in Paul's infamous list of resurrection witnesses, 1st Corinthians 15:
 3 For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures,
 4 and that He was buried, and that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures,
 5 and that He appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve.
 6 After that He appeared to more than five hundred brethren at one time, most of whom remain until now, but some have fallen asleep;
 7 then He appeared to James, then to all the apostles;
 8 and last of all, as to one untimely born, He appeared to me also. (1 Cor. 15:3-8 NAU)
Wallace continues:
Women played a critical role in the ministry of Jesus, because as Paul said, “there is no male and female” for we are all one in Christ.
 Nope, apostle Paul cited to Eve not being the first to be created, and Eve having been successfully hoodwinked by the devil, as his basis for refusing to allow women to teach in the church:
 9 Likewise, I want women to adorn themselves with proper clothing, modestly and discreetly, not with braided hair and gold or pearls or costly garments,
 10 but rather by means of good works, as is proper for women making a claim to godliness.
 11 A woman must quietly receive instruction with entire submissiveness.
 12 But I do not allow a woman to teach or exercise authority over a man, but to remain quiet.
 13 For it was Adam who was first created, and then Eve.
 14 And it was not Adam who was deceived, but the woman being deceived, fell into transgression.

 15 But women will be preserved through the bearing of children if they continue in faith and love and sanctity with self-restraint. (1 Tim. 2:9-15 NAU)
 Commentators who pretend Paul only said this because of some local heresy, is total bullshit.  Paul's reasons for prohibiting women from teaching are reasons that would easily be taken as biblical evidence that women are intellectually inferior to men.

Wallace continues:
This teaching about the value, status and identity of women, written two millennia prior to modern feminist movements, once again makes the Bible worth reading.

The Bible’s not boring: The Bible isn’t simply a collection of moralistic stories and proverbial proclamations, and it isn’t uninteresting. It is a description of the world the way it really is.
Yeah right.  A book that mentions talking snakes, a parted Red Sea with a "wall of water" on either side of the escaping Israelites, a talking donkey, angels flying, people walking on water, rising from the dead, flying up to heaven, enjoying telepathy...this book describes the way the world really is?  FUCK YOU.

It presents a comprehensive view of reality, answering the most foundational questions asked by humans for thousands of years.
Correct.  Humans have been asking for thousands of years why evil like rape occurs, and Isaiah 13:13-17 answers:  this is God causing men to rape women:
 13 Therefore I will make the heavens tremble, And the earth will be shaken from its place At the fury of the LORD of hosts In the day of His burning anger.
 14 And it will be that like a hunted gazelle, Or like sheep with none to gather them, They will each turn to his own people, And each one flee to his own land.
 15 Anyone who is found will be thrust through, And anyone who is captured will fall by the sword.
 16 Their little ones also will be dashed to pieces Before their eyes; Their houses will be plundered And their wives ravished.
 17 Behold, I am going to stir up the Medes against them, Who will not value silver or take pleasure in gold.
18 And their bows will mow down the young men, They will not even have compassion on the fruit of the womb, Nor will their eye pity children.  (Isa. 13:13-18)
Wallace continues:
It describes how we got here, why our world is broken, and how it can be fixed. The overarching narrative of the Bible has served to inspire artists of all kinds. Writers such as Shakespeare, Dostoevsky, and Dickens, artists like Da Vinci, Michelangelo and Del Greco, and musicians such as Vivaldi, Handel, and Bach found creative inspiration on the pages of Scripture.
It's also been a source of dangerous confusion for many people because it is more ideological than realistic.  You are never allowed to sin, and yet, reality makes it impossible to avoid sinning. So the bible-god intentionally commands the impossible, and yet wants his readers to believe that he shakes the mountains in fiery wrath when sinners sin.  One wonders whether God also sends judgments upon dogs for barking.
If you’re wondering what stirred these great creative geniuses, you might want to read the Bible for yourself.
And if the bible has confused your mind and made you think 'god' is a psycho more interested in himself than his victims, throwing the bible away might be the lesser of two evils.
As I began to investigate the claims of the Bible using my skillset as a cold-case detective, I found that the Gospels varied in content and style, just as I would expect if they were reliable eyewitness accounts of the life, ministry, death and resurrection of Jesus.
They also contradict each other,  but perhaps as a detective you never worry about witnesses who contradict each other?  You cannot find any non-Christian historian who thinks the variation in the gospel testimony justifies moving beyond the details and concluding that Jesus rose from the dead even if some of the witnesses are in disagreement about other matters.
They weren’t overly “repetitive” nor “self-contradictory,” especially given my experience interviewing thousands of eyewitnesses.
But you've never interviewed eyewitnesses who lived in Palestine in 40 a.d.  Some would argue that your experience is useless for discerning the truth-content of ancient testimony given by people of vastly different cultures.  What are you gonna do next?  Call Matthew to the witness stand?

Wednesday, June 24, 2020

Triablogue: Dividing up Christianity is just as easy as we suggested

This is my reply to a Triablogue article by Jason Engwer entitled:

Dividing Up Early Christianity Is More Difficult Than Often Suggested

It's common for people commenting on Easter issues, as well as issues in other contexts, to put one strand of early Christianity against another. They'll claim that a particular belief is found in one gospel, but not another. The Pauline letters have one view of a subject, but a contrary view is found in the gospels.
They are correct.  Apostle Paul taught that righteousness doesn't come from the Law.  Galatians 2:21.  But Jesus not only taught that it does (the context for Matthew 5:17-20 is not "imputed righteousness" but v. 21 ff, which make actual personal righteousness a requirement for salvation), but that anything he taught the original apostles is also required of all future Gentiles, see Matthew 28:20, the part of the Great Commission most Christians miss.  If that is true, then because Jesus ordered the apostles to obey the Pharisee's commands (Matthew 23:3), Matthew also thought the risen Christ required the same of Gentiles. 

And that's how you prove Matthew was one of the Judaizers that Paul cursed in Galatians 1:8. 
And so on. In the context of Easter, we'll be told that Paul had no concept of the empty tomb
Making me wonder what you do with skeptics like me, whose arguments against the empty tomb are far more powerful than that.  1st Corinthians 15 is too convoluted to bother with, and any idiot who believed what you think Paul believed, could have expressed himself more clearly on the point.  Had Paul any concern for the historical Jesus, which he didn't, he could have appealed to the resurrection of Lazarus, and that would have made things as clear as Jesus wanted.  Adding apostle Paul to your Christianity is like getting married to a mentally retarded criminal.  You have to be sick in the head to do it.
or that some portions of early Christianity believed in a form of resurrection that didn't involve the transformation of the body that died, for example.
Ever read 2nd John 1:7?  How could the 1st century gnostic Christians possibly believe in a bodily resurrected Christ, when they asserted that his pre-resurrection body was illusory?   And there you go, a first century group of Christians who saw nothing particularly compelling with the "bodily resurrection" hypothesis.  Hell, even Paul's churches included people who denied resurrection outright (1st Cor. 15:12).
One of the points that ought to be made in these contexts is that the alleged differing strands of early Christianity often express agreement with one another. On the resurrection, Paul refers to how he and the rest of the apostles were in agreement (1 Corinthians 15:11).
FAIL.  That is only Paul alleging that the other apostles experienced things similar to himself.  A quick analysis will reveal serious problems justifying skepticism toward Paul's testimony here:
 3 For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures,
 4 and that He was buried, and that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures,
 5 and that He appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve.
 6 After that He appeared to more than five hundred brethren at one time, most of whom remain until now, but some have fallen asleep;
 7 then He appeared to James, then to all the apostles;
 8 and last of all, as to one untimely born, He appeared to me also. (1 Cor. 15:3-8 NAU)
Paul's list was intended to convey the notion of chronological progression, therefore the appearance to Cephas was first.  But assuming the gospel of Mark really is the written form of Peter's preaching as some church fathers alleged, sure is strange that Peter (assuming he is the same as Cephas) didn't mention his own experience of the risen Christ (didn't the apostles value eyewitness testimony as much as Triablogue does?  If the apostles didn't find it necessary to write 6,000 articles addressing every possible trifle against theiir faith, Triablogue will have to admit there is a serious probability that it's sin of word-wrangling truly does signify a lack of sanctification.  A true Christian cares more about walking in the light, and less about "my arguments are still powerful whether I live in sin or not"). 

It's more strange if Peter did give his testimony and Mark somehow didn't think that part sufficiently important to justify mentioning despite the fact that Peter was the source, and the resurrection of Jesus the capstone of the gospel.  Your conjured up possible scenarios (Maybe mark forgot, maybe this, maybe that) will never be powerful enough to render my skepticism at this point unreasonable. Even stranger, even assuming Mark's long ending is canonical, there is no appearance to Peter there either.  We are fully justified to say the gospels don't mention any appearance to Peter before an appearance to the 12, because the gospel authors did not know of any such appearances, not because they were knowingly suppressing relevant testimony.  They already had a hard case to prove, they would likely regard ALL resurrection testimony, which they viewed as reliable, to be indispensable.  So skepticism toward Paul's resurrection summary is justified.  Contrary to popular belief, skepticism doesn't need to be founded on absolutes anymore than Christian faith does.

The appearance to 500 brothers at one time is recorded nowhere else in the NT, and worse, there can be no intellectual constraint on the skeptic to admit that testimony, since you don't know whether Paul says such a thing based on his own personal knowledge, or if he is conveying hearsay, or if he simply made it up in the typical fashion of Semitic exaggeration, which Flannagan and Copan tell us was the case with the "kill'em all" passages in the OT.

There is no appearance to 'James' in any of the gospels, except of course the Gospel to the Hebrews...wanna go there?  I didn't think so.  Like the atheist who has already decided that miracles are impossible, YOU have already decided that the Gospel to the Hebrews is not worthy of being taken seriously, since you aren't stupid enough to open epistemological doors you'll never close again.  Welcome to the club of smug presuppositionalism.  Maybe God wants you to do something else in life beside spend his money resurrecting demon inspired events for posterity, you fuckin fool.

Paul's using the same word for "appear" (Greek: horao) for all the listed appearances including to himself was dishonest, since the most explicit NT stories about Jesus appearing to Paul, neither express nor imply that he was an "eyewitness" in the sense that the gospels portray the Christ-appearances to the other apostles.  Go ahead, read Acts 9, Acts 22 and Acts 26.  Let me know when you find anything saying Paul saw anything more than a "light from heaven".  I also answered Steve Hays' trifles about the historicity of Paul's Damascus road experience, here.  Paul was NOT an "eyewitness" of the risen Christ.  And it wouldn't matter if he was, the apostolic test for apostleship is not "did you see the risen Christ?" but "were you present among Jesus' followers from the beginning of his earthly ministry"? (Acts 1:21).  You'll excuse me if I reject Paul's criteria of apostleship in favor of Peter's.  Feel free to join J. Vernon McGee in accusing Peter and the church in Acts 1 of defying the will of God, but don't say so publicly, you're liable to get steamrolled with details in Acts 1 you've shut your eyes to.

On the other hand, a theory that Paul wasn't being dishonest in 1st Cor. 15 would require that the manner in which Paul experienced Jesus on the road to Damascus is the way Paul thought the apostles experienced Jesus, which is bad news for you, given the nonsensical "Jesus-was-there-but-didn't-allow-anybody-to-see-him-except-Paul" absurdity, the likes of which would get any case based on similar nonsense tossed out of court, the the Plaintiff sued for filing a frivolous claim.  The reasonableness of the skeptical alternatives is not going to disappear merely because you can trifle about this or that.
To cite another example, see here regarding the likely reference to Luke's gospel as scripture in 1 Timothy 5:18.
Don't forget to tell them that some inerrantist Christian scholars deny the connection:

  It is not likely that Paul was quoting the Gospel of Luke, a document whose date of writing is uncertain. Paul may have been referring to a collection of Jesus’ sayings, some of which appear in Luke’s Gospel.
Lea, T. D., & Griffin, H. P. (2001, c1992). Vol. 34: 1, 2 Timothy, Titus (electronic ed.). The New American Commentary (Page 156). Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.

But I'm sure that Jason Engwer will still "expect" spiritually dead skeptics to successfully navigate the disputes that conservative inerrantist Christian scholars have with each other.  To think anything else is to give them excuse to deny God, and Romans 1:20 must be upheld to the death, amen?
Paul's letters are referred to as scripture in 2 Peter 3:15-16.
You say nothing here that might intellectually obligate a non-Christian to agree.
An example cited less often, but which has a lot of significance, is the early patristic attestation of how highly John viewed the Synoptic gospels.
Matthew made Jesus into a Judaizer (23:3, 28:20), yet John's gospel nowhere expresses or implies that Gentiles must obey the Pharisees.  Perhaps somebody can have high regard for an author, without agreeing with everything that author said?  Just like Jason Engwer has high regard for Steve Hays, while thinking Hays' Calvinism is an absurd misinterpretation of scripture (or did you become a Calvinist since 2015?)
See here concerning what Papias tells us about John's view of the gospel of Mark.
And just forget about  Papias' credibility problems.  You are here to live through your blog, not "convince" anybody of anything.  Also forget about the fact that you cannot demonstrate that any modern person is under the least bit of intellectual or moral obligation to give two shits about ancient hearsay.  So when we refuse to consider it, we aren't breaking any rules of intellectual or moral integrity. 

It sucks to be you because you are doing more to promote the gospel than even your own god!  Don't tell me God works through you, or I will ask why you don't profess to write inerrantly.  Where does the bible say God's inspiration would affect people of the future to a lesser degree than it did the biblical authors?
(And for more about Papias and his relationship with the apostle John, see here.) Clement of Alexandria cited some elders who commented on John's view of the Synoptics. See here for more about that passage.
Wow, I never knew Triablogue put so much stock in ancient hearsay at third-hand.  Jesus' resurrection is as obvious as the existence of trees.  I faint from fear of your god.  Can I borrow some dust and ashes?  Or are you a dispensationalist?
Notice, too, that much of what I'm saying here holds up even if the traditional authorship attributions of the New Testament documents are rejected. I explain some of the reasons why in my article on 1 Timothy 5:18 linked above, and those principles apply to other documents as well, not just 1 Timothy.
How much would Christianity suffer if it could be proven that the modern person is not under the least bit of intellectual compulsion to give two fucks what the 4 gospels say?  Sounds like a reasonable argument for rejecting traditional gospel authorship, which I can easily make and have made numerous times before, disposes of 4 of those resurrection witnesses, in a circumstance where you don't have very many witnesses anyway, and therefore the loss of 4 witnesses could not possibly be trivilaized, unless you are a Pentecostal Calvinist like Steve Hays, who thinks his personal experience of Christ counts for beans in such a debate.
Similarly, even if you think the elder Papias referred to was somebody other than the apostle John, the fact would remain that Papias was highly influenced by the Johannine documents (as I argue in my material linked above), and he held a high view of the Synoptics.
He also held a high view of talking grapes.  Let's just say I don't exactly lose sleep at night wondering whether Papias should still be believed or not despite his credibility problems.   I've rejected him and you haven't given me the slightest reason to worry I might have been wrong.  The difference between you and I is that I'm always open to dialogue and debate; YOU are just a chickenshit cocksucker who carefully avoids explaining why he won't put up or shut up.

For example, I asked you for all the evidence you had on the Enfield Poltergiest that you think God wants you to endless blog about, perhaphs thinking in doing so you are mirroring the apostles.  I'm still waiting.  Perhaps you have a new theory?  Maybe atheists who want to evaluate the same evidence you do, are not "worthy" to be given access?

 You can tell from my debates here that when I'm involved in formal debate, I use nicer language, so don't hide behind the pretext of "foul language".  I'll talk nicer if that's what you demand, you posterboy for masculinity, you.  And if you demand I talk nicer, I'd love to hear you comment on whether James Patrick Holding's use of foul insulting language and slurs for the last 20 years can intellectually justify a person to be suspicious that his claim to salvation is complete bullshit.

Any fool can post endless blog entries about Christian theology, but direct debate is where you find out whether their blog posts are substantive, or just organized noise.
Furthermore, saying that the elder Papias refers to wasn't the apostle John doesn't change the fact that he was some sort of prominent early church leader who didn't write the gospel of Mark and seems to have operated largely outside of the circles that gospel's author is usually associated with, yet he held a high view of that gospel.
An anonymous person held a high view of an anonymous gospel.  Don't make me put my beer down, turn off the stereo and start trembling in fear before your empty sky.
Rejecting something like Pauline authorship of 1 Timothy or the identification of Papias' elder as the apostle John would weaken my argument, but the argument would still carry some weight.
But you'll never establish that there is the least bit of intellectual or moral obligation upon any modern person to so much as CARE what the gospels say in the first place.  I can make a reasonable biblical case that Jesus' warnings about eternal conscious torment contradict the Old Testament, so that there's about as much danger in rejecting the gospel as there is in deleting spam email.

Times are changing, you won't be scaring anybody into heaven if I can help it.   Now tell yourself the Holy Spirit allowed me to post this rebuttal piece because he wants you to think of new creative ways to convince yourself that you can stand up to my debate challenges without needing to actually debate.

Wednesday, March 20, 2019

Cold Case Christianity: THIS is why missing data in the gospels justifies skepticism

This is my reply to an article by J. Warner Wallace entitled


A visitor to ColdCaseChristianity.com wrote recently to express her concerns and growing doubts about Christianity.
Or maybe you are concerned about a criticism I wrote against one of your beliefs, and you are just pretending the concern originated in what this unnamed Christian said.  We must consider all options.  You are a sinner, your honesty is far from deserving of presumption.
Raised in the Church, she finds herself questioning the reliability of the Gospel authors because some of them failed to mention important events in the life and ministry of Jesus.
 Congrats to atheist bible critics like me, because such a concern likely wouldn't originate from within her faith or her church.  It was likely a skeptic who motivated her to grant legitimacy to the argument from silence.
Why does only one Gospel writer mention the Raising of Lazarus?
Given that John has no problems lying about what Jesus said and did, the other 3 likely didn't mention it because it never happened.
Why does only one writer mention the dead people who rose from the grave at Jesus’ crucifixion?
Christian apologist and inerrantist Dr. Mike Licona credits this to the Matthew-author's desire to mix history with fiction.



See here.

You can hardly blame skeptics for agreeing with him. Unfortunately, Matthew also explains the empty tomb in spite of the guards, with a dramatic tale of an angel with appearance of lightning frighting the guards into comatose state (28:4).  That easily qualifies as "apocalyptic imagery" no less than the zombie resurrection. Gee, when did the average evangelical fundamentalist Christian ever learn in church that just because the gospels report something in a manner that looks like historical reporting, doesn't necessarily mean it was actual history?  NEVER.
There are many examples of singular, seemingly important events mentioned by only one of the four Gospel authors. Shouldn’t all of the alleged eyewitnesses have included these events, and doesn’t the absence of information in a particular Gospel cast doubt on whether or not the event actually occurred?
 Since you are so quick to use American law to analyze the reliability of the gospels, you'll be disappointed to know that American law allows the jury to interpret a witness's omission or silence to be the logical equivalent of a positive denial:
"Impeachment by omission" is a recognized means of challenging a witness's credibility. "A statement from which there has been omitted a material assertion that would normally have been made and which is presently testified to may be considered a prior inconsistent statement." State v. Provet, 133 N.J.Super. 432, 437, 337 A.2d 374 (App.Div.), certif. denied, 68 N.J. 174, 343 A.2d 462 (1975); see also Silva, supra, 131 N.J. at 444-45, 621 A.2d 17; State v. Marks, 201 N.J.Super. 514, 531-32, 493 A.2d 596 (App. Div.1985), certif. denied, 102 N.J. 393, 508 A.2d 253 (1986). This principle is widely accepted. Jenkins v. Anderson, 447 U.S. 231, 239, 100 S.Ct. 2124, 2129, 65 L.Ed.2d 86, 95 (1980) ("Common law traditionally has allowed witnesses to be impeached by their previous failure to state a fact in circumstances in which that fact naturally would have been asserted."); Kenneth S. Broun, McCormick on Evidence § 34 (7th 784*784 ed. 2013) ("[I]f the prior statement omits a material fact presently testified to and it would have been natural to mention that fact in the prior statement, the statement is sufficiently inconsistent."); 3A Wigmore on Evidence § 1042 (Chadbourn rev. 1970) ("A failure to assert a fact, when it would have been natural to assert it, amounts in effect to an assertion of the non-existence of the fact.")

That is cut and pasted from my more in-depth article that shows how the basics of American jurisprudence render the gospels unreliable and inadmissible.  See here

Wallace continues:
My experience working with eyewitnesses may help you think clearly about these issues and objections. You can trust the Gospel eyewitness accounts, even though some are missing important details:
 Then you are already contradicting modern laws of evidence.  Wallace...you are not allowed to automatically assume that any possible "how-it-could-have-been" scenario you conjure up to explain an eyewitness's silence, is the only reasonable way to interpret said silence.  We the jury shall make our own decision whether the witness was silent because she thought it false, or merely "chose to exclude" it for her own unknown reasons.
Eyewitness Accounts Vary Based on Their Scope
When I interview an eyewitness, I am very careful to set the parameter for the testimony before I begin.
Something you obviously cannot do with ancient written testimony whose authors have been dead for 2,000 years.
I usually frame the interview by saying something like, “Please tell me everything you saw from the moment the robber came in the bank, to the moment he left.”
A request you don't know the gospel authors were intending or not intending to fulfill , in their motive to write.  I'd really like to ask Matthew "please tell me everything the risen Jesus told you during those 40 days of appearances which Acts 1:3 says you experienced, not merely the 15 second snippet you limited yourself to in your last chapter."

Unfortunately, such a request for greater quantity is useless in light of the death of the gospel authors.

If you believe in the power of prayer, why don't you ever tell your followers to ask God to fill out for them the factual details they wish the gospel authors would have included?  Or do we all recognize that nothing fails quite like prayer?  If the gospels are divinely inspired, such a prayer to God would be perfectly reasonable.  Yet you've never dared embark on such a futile undertaking as that.
I make sure to set the constraints the same way for each and every witness.
 And since you do nothing of the kind when restricted to documents authored by currently dead witnesses, as is the case with the gospels, all you are doing here is sounding intellectual without actually being intellectual.
Without these parameters, the resulting testimony would vary wildly from person to person.
So since you cannot impose those parameters on the 4 gospel authors, you are required to conclude their testimony varies widely from author to author for reasons not controlled for by your "parameters".
Some would include details prior to or after the robbery, some would include only the highlights, and some would omit major elements in the event.
 That's also because the eyewitnesses didn't all see the same thing or hear the same sounds.  That being the case, why do you automatically reject conservative Christian scholar Dr. Craig Evans' skeptical explanation for the John 11 raising of Lazarus being omitted by the Synoptics (Evans denies that we'd hear Jesus talking the way John's gospel presents, if we cold go back in time and listen to Jesus for ourselves, see here)?  How the fuck would you know whether the people who authored the Synoptics did or didn't know about that event?

But the skeptical solution (i.e., that assuming eyewitness gospel authorship, Matthew would surely have seen Jesus raise Lazarus, and with his desire to use apocalyptic fiction in his resurrection narrative anyway (Matthew 27:53, the zombie-resurrection story Licona denies the historicity of), and in light of the fact that Matthew alone has the risen Christ require his apostles teach the Gentiles "all" of the pre-Cross teachings (28:20), Matthew is especially likely to have mentioned the raising of Lazarus, were this a truely "historical" event).  So his omission reasonably implies he either never knew about it (suggesting it never happened), or he thought the story false (goodbye bible inerrancy). We are not limited to just picking an explanation that supports gospel reliability. 
If I want to be able to compare the testimony of two or three witnesses later, I’m going to have to make sure they begin with the same scope and framework in mind.
Something you cannot control for when dealing with documents authored by witnesses who have been dead for 2,000 years.

Furthermore, I object to your constant resort to "witness" and "eyewitness" in this analysis, as there are numerous cogent arguments that the gospels are at best a tangled pastiche of late Christian tradition and a few things Jesus really did say.  John Meier, Christian scholar, author of the comprehensive 4-volume "Jesus: A Marginal Jew", says that numerous times in the Synoptic gospels, a story about what Jesus said or did is in reality something created by Christian Jews, for example:


 See here.  I think this is where you try to do god service by exclaiming that just because a scholar more competent than you in the gospels, disagrees with you, doesn't necessarily mean he is in the right.  Well he doesn't have to be.  You can hardly label as irrational the skeptic who says the odds of who is right favor Meier far more than they favor you.
The Gospel authors clearly did not testify with the same initial instructions. There was no unifying investigator present to set the framework for their testimony, so their responses vary in the same way they would vary today if the scope of their testimony was not established from the onset. Mark, according to Papias, the 1st Century Bishop of Hierapolis, “became Peter’s interpreter and wrote accurately all that he remembered, not, indeed, in order, of the things said and done by the Lord. For he had not heard the Lord, nor had followed him, but later on, followed Peter, who used to give teaching as necessity demanded but not making, as it were, an arrangement of the Lord’s oracles, so that Mark did nothing wrong in thus writing down single points as he remembered them. For to one thing he gave attention, to leave out nothing of what he had heard and to make no false statements in them.” More concerned about accuracy of individual events than the order in which they occurred, Mark offered details like many of my witnesses who are interviewed without a unified parameter. Mark is simply recording the preaching of Peter, and Peter only referred to portions of Jesus’ life and ministry, making no effort to order them for his listeners.
Your uncritical acceptance of Papias' comment that Peter is Mark's source, is found faulty even by conservative evangelical standards.  Guelich says in the evangelical Word Biblical Commentary:
How is one to accept Papias’s testimony? On the one side, the preponderance of scholarship over the centuries has accepted this witness in total. It has its defendants among critical scholars today (e.g., Cranfield, 5; Kürzinger, BZ 21 [1977] 245–64; Hengel, Studies, 47–50). On the opposite side, many contemporary scholars have totally rejected Papias’s views (e.g., Niederwimmer, ZNW 58 [1967] 172–88; Kümmel, Introduction, 97; Körtner, ZNW 71 [1980] 171). Somewhere in the middle are those who accept Papias’s identification of the writer as Mark but question his explanation of Mark’s material as reminiscences of Peter’s preaching (e.g., Pesch, 1:9; Ernst, 21; Lührmann, 5).
Without doubt a close examination of Mark’s material will show that the evangelist did not simply write his Gospel based on his notes or memory of Peter’s teachings. The amazing similarity in language, style, and form of the Synoptic tradition between the Markan and non-Markan materials of Matthew and Luke (cf. John’s Gospel) hardly suggests that Mark’s materials were shaped by one man, be he either Peter or Mark. Furthermore, the Commentary will demonstrate the presence of multiple traditional milieus (e.g., the two Feedings), stages in the development of traditional units (e.g., 5:1–20), and the thematic combination of units into collections (e.g., 4:1–34) within the Markan materials that point to a more complex traditional background than mental or written notes of another’s preaching. Therefore, while Papias may accurately identify the author as Mark, his description of Mark’s source and content is oversimplified at best.
Guelich, R. A. (2002). Vol. 34A: Word Biblical Commentary : Mark 1-8:26.
Word Biblical Commentary (Page xxvii). Dallas: Word, Incorporated.
 I'm not saying you lose merely because I can find Christian scholars who disagree with your simplistic uncritical trusting acceptance of patristic testimony.  I'm saying you incorrect to charge skeptics with being unreasonable merely because they hesitate longer than you before accepting patristic sources.
Eyewitness Accounts Vary Based on Their Perspective and Purpose
They also vary sometimes because eyewitnesses tell lies or are sincerely mistaken. Funny how you never give that possibility any consideration.  Actually not really, you are an inerrantist:  You are not here to be objective, but to push the inerrancy agenda.  And if you started personally doubting biblical reliability, the fact that you have a history of making money selling biblical reliability justifies the suspicion that you'd never honestly or publicly admit it.  You become a liberal, and you can look forward to being abandoned by the inerrantist apologists you currently network with.  Most people aren't stupid enough to nuke their opportunities to make money and preserve stability.
In addition, the witnesses I interview often want to highlight a particular element in the crime scene or a particular suspect behavior they think is important. Sometimes their choice of detail is influenced greatly by their own life history. Their values, experiences and personal concerns guide their selection of which details they include, and which they omit. Witnesses also typically try to offer what they think I am looking for as the detective rather than every little thing they actually saw. They are speaking to a specific audience (an investigator), and this has an impact on what they choose to include or omit. When this happens, I have to refocus each witness and ask them to fill in the details they skipped over, including everything they saw, even if they don’t think it’s important to me as a detective. If I don’t encourage eyewitnesses to be more inclusive and specific, they will omit important details.

The Gospel authors were not similarly directed. They had specific audiences in mind and particular perspectives to offer, and none of their testimony was guided by a unifying investigator who could encourage them to fill in the missing details.
 Then you are denying their inspiration by God, whom you say could very well have had them fill in the missing details had He wished them to.
Luke clearly had a particular reader in mind (Theophilus): “Inasmuch as many have undertaken to compile an account of the things accomplished among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and servants of the word, it seemed fitting for me as well, having investigated everything carefully from the beginning, to write it out for you in consecutive order, most excellent Theophilus; so that you may know the exact truth about the things you have been taught (Luke 1)”. Like other witnesses and historians, Luke likely allowed his intended audience to influence his selection of details. His testimony was also most certainly shaped by his own life experience (as an educated man),his own personal history, and his values.
 And conservative Christian scholars can also be found who say this "Theophilus" was just a figure of speech, and that Luke used this name to characterize any Christian reader:
Where did Luke write from, and to whom did he write? These questions probably are unanswerable. Luke dedicated the book to Theophilus, and Theophilus is a Greek name. Did Luke then write primarily to Gentiles? If so, why did he concern himself so much with Jewish questions? Why the elaborate messianic proofs of Peter’s sermons in Acts 2 and 3 if not to provide his readers with a pattern for witness to Jews? The most likely answer is that Luke intended his work for Christian communities that included both Jews and Gentiles—mixed congregations such as those we encounter frequently in Paul’s epistles.
Polhill, J. B. (2001, c1992). Vol. 26: Acts (electronic ed.). Logos Library System;
The New American Commentary (Page 31). Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.
In other words, Acts was written for believing communities, and thus not intended to satisfy skeptics, rationally warranting skeptics if they choose to ignore Luke and Acts.  They'd be acting more in conformity to the author's wish, than Christian apologists today who ignore authorial intent and childishly splatter every biblical thing to every part of the cosmos. 
Matthew did something similar when he highlighted the details of Jesus’ life most relevant to Matthew’s Jewish audience.
 But patristic accounts make clear that he wrote for Jews:
The Gospel according to Matthew was written to the Jews. For they laid particular stress upon the fact that Christ [should be] of the seed of David. Matthew also, who had a still greater desire [to establish this point], took particular pains to afford them convincing proof that Christ is of the seed of David; and therefore he commences with [an account of] His genealogy.
See here.

That is, the author of Matthew seriously expected for unbelieving Jews to find his story of Jesus' virgin birth to be true, and to find his use of Isaiah 7:14 to be legitimate.  In other words, if you are going to be so accepting of patristic testimony about gospel authorship, the apostles were rather gullible and anti-intellectual.  Any self-respecting non-Christian Jew, knowledgeable of the OT, would not be persuaded by such presumptive storytelling.  Scholars complain there's no evidence in pre-Christian Judaism that Isaiah 7:14 was considered messianic prophecy.  

Yet we have to believe that the author of the most Jewish sounding gospel, surely knew that non-Christian Jews do not just buh-leeve any interpretation of their OT that outsiders give.  Yet Matthew engages in precisely zero attempted justification for his use of Isaiah 7:14, nor does he provide anything useful to help non-Jews track these things down.  He had the objectivity-level of a KJV Onlyist who thinks screaming bible verses at people causes the Holy Spirit to do things.  He seems to think that there's just no rationality in questioning anything he has to say, thus preempting any need for him to bother with the least bit of documentation of sources.  No thank you.
Eyewitness Accounts Vary Based on Their Knowledge of Other Testimony
Sometimes an eyewitness will only provide those details he thinks are missing from the testimony of others. This is most likely to occur if the witness is the last one to be interviewed and he (or she) is already familiar with the testimony of the other witnesses. When I see this happening, I ask this last witness to pretend like he or she is the only witness in my case, “Try to include every detail like I’ve never heard anything about the case. Pretend like I know nothing about the event.” Once the witness has done that, I may go back and re-interview the prior witnesses to see why they didn’t mention the late details offered by the final witness. In the end, my reports related to everyone’s testimony will be as complete as possible, including all the details remembered by each person I interviewed.

The gospel authors were not similarly directed and re-interviewed. John was the last person to provide an account, and he clearly selected those events important to him, given his stated goal: “…many other signs Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name (John 20)”. John knew what had already been provided by others, and he selected specific events (some which were previously unreported) to make his case.
 And as usual, you tell your followers nothing about the growing conservative Christian scholarly view that John's gospel attributes to Jesus things Jesus never actually said or did.  This, despite your quickness to believe everything you read in the early church fathers, such as Clement of Alexandria's statement, which clearly differentiates John's subject matter from the "external facts" subject matter in the Synoptics:



But, last of all, John, perceiving that the external facts had been made plain in the Gospel, being urged by his friends, and inspired by the Spirit, composed a spiritual Gospel. This is the account of Clement. ( Eusebius, Hist. Eccl., 6:14)     
But John, the last of all, seeing that what was corporeal was set forth in the Gospels, on the entreaty of his intimate friends, and inspired by the Spirit, composed a spiritual Gospel. (ANF, Vol. II, Fragments of Clement of Alexandria, From the Books of the Hypotyposes)
 It doesn't matter if you can trifle that Clement's remarks can be plausibly interpreted to say John also provided "external facts", you certainly cannot condemn as unreasonable my own interpretation that says Clement here was saying John's purpose was not to convey external facts.  The fact that my interpretation would kill evangelical conservativism in its cradle, doesn't suddenly mean the interpretation is wrong or unreasonable. 

Wallace continues:
He acknowledged his limited choice of data: “…there are also many other things which Jesus did, which if they were written in detail, I suppose that even the world itself would not contain the books that would be written (John 21)”. John admitted what we already know: witnesses pick and choose from their own observations unless they are specifically directed to do otherwise.
I don't have a problem with the gospel authors picking and choosing what material to include or exclude.  I have a problem with modern-day Christian apologists who blindly assume that only the explanations for this, which help defend biblical inerrancy, are the only explanations that have any significance.  Once again, you also know that eyewitnesses will differ because they are lying or mistaken, but you never entertain this obvious reality here...probably because to suggest the gospel eyewitnesses differ from each other due to lying or mistake, is to raise possibilities you don't wish to raise...such as bible inerrancy being a false doctrine.
Because the gospel authors were not specifically instructed, guided or re-interviewed by a single detective, we simply cannot conclude much from the differences between the accounts.
Bullshit.  If you think Peter was the source behind Mark's gospel, you'll have a hard time explaining one of Mark's more striking and unexpected omissions:


“Messiah”?  or “Messiah, Son of the living God”?
Mark 8
Matthew 16
27 Jesus went out, along with His disciples, to the villages of Caesarea Philippi;

and on the way He questioned His disciples, saying to them, "Who do people say that I am?" 

 28 They told Him, saying, "John the Baptist; and others say Elijah; but others, one of the prophets."

  29 And He continued by questioning them, "But who do you say that I am?"

Peter answered and said to Him,
"You are the Christ."




 (omitted!)





 








 30 And He warned them to tell no one about Him.

 31 And He began to teach them that the Son of Man must

 suffer many things and be rejected by the elders and the chief priests and the scribes,
13 Now when Jesus came into the district of Caesarea Philippi,
 
He was asking His disciples, "Who do people say that the Son of Man is?"


 14 And they said, "Some say John the Baptist; and others, Elijah; but still others, Jeremiah, or one of the prophets."

 15 He said to them, "But who do you say that I am?"

 16 Simon Peter answered,
"You are the Christ,

the Son of the living God."

 17 And Jesus said to him, "Blessed are you, Simon Barjona, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but My Father who is in heaven.

 18 "I also say to you that you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build My church; and the gates of Hades will not overpower it.

 19 "I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven; and whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven."

 20 Then He warned the disciples that they should tell no one that He was the Christ.

21 From that time Jesus began to show His disciples that He must go to Jerusalem, and

suffer many things from the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and be raised up on the third day.


 Now what, Wallace?  Do you seriously think that Mark knew Jesus' answer was as long and theologically significant as the one we today see in Matthew's version, and Mark merely "chose for unknown reasons to exclude" such critically important part of Jesus' answer?  FUCK YOU.

Conservatives defend by saying Peter didn't wish to impose his authority on others, but this is total bullshit, since if Jesus really did give the longer answer preserved in Matthew, we are reasonable to assume Peter would not sideline Jesus' statement, but would have properly done what even Paul did, and make clear how and why he possesses the authority that he does.

Nah, the authority that Jesus bequeaths on Peter in Matthew's longer version is not something Mark would likely have omitted (Mark never has Jesus giving anybody "keys to the kingdom", so you cannot even pretend that "Mark covered the matter once and didn't feel it needed repeating"), had he known Jesus' answer was that long.  Therefore, you cannot blame me, any skeptic, John Meier, or most Christian scholars, for concluding that Mark omitted it because he and Peter remembered Jesus' answer being shorter, and therefore, Matthew's longer version is not what Jesus really said, it is what Matthew has falsely fabricated and embellished in the effort to give more dramatic effect to this particular scene.
Skeptics sometimes infer more from omissions (or inclusions) in the Gospels than what is reasonable, especially given the manner in which the Gospels came to be written.
And inerrantists sometimes give more weight to inerrancy-favoring explanations than the evidence will allow.  But surely its only the skeptics who are dominated by their presuppositions, while Christian inerrantists are objective calculators pushing no agenda.
Because the four authors were not specifically instructed, guided or re-interviewed by a single detective, we simply cannot conclude much from the differences between the accounts.
That's stupid, there's no Christian gospel scholar on the face of the earth that will say our modern inability to get the authors to fill in the blanks means we cannot draw reasonable inferences from the way they differ from one another.  Even inerrantist Christian scholars, such as J.A. Brooks,  explain Matthew's and Luke's softer form of a story than the version Mark gave, is because they are "toning down" language of Mark that they believe is errant or likely to support an errant view:

Mark 6:5 This statement about Jesus’ inability to do something is one of the most striking instances of Mark’s boldness and candor. It is omitted by Luke 4:16–30 and toned down by Matt 13:58.
Brooks, J. A. (2001, c1991). Vol. 23: Mark (electronic e.). Logos Library System;
The New American Commentary (Page 100). Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.

If Matthew thought Mark's gospel was "inerrant", he'd no more "tone down" Mark's choice of wording than YOU would.  

We must, instead, do our best to employ the four part template we use to evaluate eyewitness reliability after the fact.
 No, we should examine the gospels using standard techniques that all historians use to analyze the probable truth-content of other similarly ancient documents.  There is some overlap between the methods of historiography used by historians, and rules of evidence as used in modern American courts, but the issues with ancient testimony are far more complicated than modern court rules of evidence were intended to address.  Wallace, do you know of any court cases where trial was allowed on a question that required the truth to rest upon what a 2,000 year old document said?  Obviously not.  When I accuse you of using clever marketing bells and whistles as gimmicks to con Christians into buying your stuff, that's not as inaccurate as you'd wish.  What's your next book going to be?  "True Colors:  How Techniques used by Painters Reveal the Truth of Bible Inerrancy?"

The fact that it doesn't make sense is precisely why there's money in it, remember?
This template (as I’ve described it in Cold-Case Christianity), provides us with confidence in the trustworthy nature of the Biblical narratives. That’s why you can trust the Gospel eyewitness accounts, even though some are missing important details.
I find it funny that you never considered an equally likely explanation, that eyewitnesses often differ from one another because some of them are lying or mistaken.  That's also a stark reality daily experienced in courts of law, but you omit this genuine possibility as if only a crazy person would consider it.

Probably because to even start talking about the possibility of eyewitnesses lying or being mistaken, opens the door to kissing bible inerrancy goodbye forever.   Wow, even criminal investigators are blinded by their own biases.  Thanks for the lesson.

Jason Engwer doesn't appreciate the strong justification for skepticism found in John 7:5

Bart Ehrman, like thousands of other skeptics, uses Mark 3:21 and John 7:5 to argue that Jesus' virgin birth (VB) is fiction.  Jason Eng...