Wednesday, April 26, 2023

My objections to Lisa Cooper and Christian Research Institute about Sandy Hook and theodicy

This is my reply to an article in the CRI Journal entitled

(Was God at Sandy Hook that day?)
Lisa Cooper, Article ID: JAF1422, Apr 3, 2023

To give a Christian apologetic response to school shootings, it is important to address the problem of evil. How is it possible that a perfectly good God who is in control over all things would allow such heinous acts of violence carried out against innocent children?
Easy: you redefine "good" so that it no longer precludes acts that it normally precludes when used in typical everyday speech.  Making us wonder what criteria you use to decide when typical everyday speech is and isn't sufficient to meaningfully discuss "god".
Of first importance is the philosophical answer to this question. By focusing on the well-received argument put forth by Christian philosopher Alvin Plantinga concerning mankind’s free will to do both good and evil, it becomes evident that God can be good even though evil exists.

So apparently Lisa wants us to side with her against Calvinism....when we know that Calvinism v. Arminianism is one of Christianity's more pernicious in-house debates. 

This response, however, does not always reach people who are hurting.

If quoting a bible verse to a grieving person doesn't help them, blame it on God, who often boasts that his word is powerful and sufficient.  Really now, what is the Holy Spirit doing when you quote Romans 9:20 to a grieving mother who responds to her son's murder by questioning god's goodness?  Is the Holy Spirit NOT using that word of God for his own glory?  If he is, then the failure of a bible quote to calm the grieving parents of murdered children probably has less to do with 'wisdom' and more to do with "bible quotes are nothing but hot air in the first place". 

Christian philosopher Angus Menuge offers an existential response to the problem of evil. He uses Jesus’ death on the Cross as a starting point, showing that God knows what it means to have a child die,

He should, God is the one who killed his own son by his own "hand":

 27 "For truly in this city there were gathered together against Your holy servant Jesus, whom You anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel,

 28 to do whatever Your hand and Your purpose predestined to occur. (Acts 4:27-28 NAU)

Lisa continues: 

and Jesus, having died for us,

except that Christian Calvinists deny that Jesus died for absolutely all sinners...a point which causes non-Calvinist Christians to deny the Calvinist god's goodness...something us unbelievers can exploit.

has suffered every pain we as humans could suffer in this life.

False, there is no evidence that Jesus ever suffered the pain of losing a biological child or being divorced by a spouse that suddenly became unloving, or became paralyzed from the neck down in an accident and then had to endure the next 50 years of his life experiencing severe depression at his inability to move,  and experiencing the guilt of becoming a significant burden on those who took care of him. 

Further, a biblical approach to suffering

What about unbelievers who don't accept the doctrine of full biblical inerrancy?  Can they correctly interpret a bible verse about God's morality without worrying about whether that interpretation harmonizes with everything else in the bible? 

reveals that, in the midst of all of this pain, God works all things together for the good of those who love Him (Rom. 8:28), even when we receive no direct answer about how this happens.

You know it's true because "the bible says".  My heart is already skipping from the great sense of guilt I have about my sin. 

It is true that our suffering conforms us to the image of Christ.

The hope of the hopeless.  One wonders what orientalisms about morality in the NT would have been different if life in the 1st century hadn't been as rough on Christians as it was.

While we live this side of heaven, we identify with Jesus in His suffering. When He comes again, we will identify with His resurrected and glorified self — perfect and sinless, without sadness or suffering, and forevermore participating in the Son’s holy and loving relationship with the Father.

What about preterism, you know, the eschatological doctrine that says Jesus completed his second coming before the close of the 1st century?  How long does God want me to compare your futurist eschatology with Christian historicist eschatology, before He will start expecting me to discover which one is the truth?  Would John the Revelator agree with most conservative Trinitarian inerrantists of today that his words about the eschaton constitute non-essential theology?  Wow, he sure seemed all fired up about the whole business.

Therefore, in ministering to those affected by gun violence, we are called to a ministry of patient listening and faithful presence.

Would you be exercising patience by informing them that God in Deuteronomy 32:39 and Job 14:5 takes personal responsibility for all human murder?  How would the Holy Spirit use your references to these texts to further His intentions toward the grieving survivors? 

We simply should not try to present fully formed analytical answers to those who are lamenting the loss of a child. What we can do is be present in the day-to-day wrestling, listening to them in their distress, and pointing them to how Jesus has already-but-not-yet accomplished the end of suffering.

"already-but-not-yet"?  I don't think hitting the grieving parents of murdered children with theological contradiction is the best way to "minister" to them.  Perhaps that's because I'm an unbeliever and I don't recognize any force in the "god's ways are mysterious" excuse?

When the news of the Sandy Hook Elementary school shooting in Newtown, Connecticut, was posted on my Facebook account, I was eight months pregnant with my first son. Having grown up in the town next to Newtown, I knew those streets; I knew that parking lot; I knew some of the people in that community. I sat at my laptop, aghast at the live feed.

Aghast at God performing his will (Job 14:5)?  How could something you are supposed to pray for ("thy will be done on earth as it is in Heaven") be something you were 'aghast' at?  Maybe I didn't notice that CRI is so anti-Calvinist that they take the Arminian approach absolutely for granted? 

Aerial views of the school, panicked parents searching the crowds for their kids, kids’ faces flushed red from crying; it was all too much to take in.

Perhaps you are spiritually immature to pray that God perform his will, then find it too much to take when you God starts answering that prayer? 

I kept reminding myself to breathe. All the while, a phrase repeated in my mind: “How can I bring a child into this world?”
People can be so utterly evil. How can I allow this child to exist in a world where sin has so infected people that a twenty-year-old man could think it was a good idea to murder first his own mother and then as many children as he could before turning the gun on himself?

You can't, because you are a good person.  So the only way "god" could allow it is if you redefine "good" so that it doesn't preclude acts that it normally would preclude in typical daily conversation.  Remember:  God must always be a special exception to the rules...that's the only hope you have of salvaging any theodicy.

In the news since that horrific day, December 14, 2012, we see murder after murder, school shooting after school shooting. Educators are heard relaying hiding tactics to news reporters, while others have died protecting students, having used their bodies as human shields.1 According to the K–12 School Shooting Database, since January of 2013, the month following the Sandy Hook shootings, there have been 328 incidents of gun violence on school premises. Not all of these incidents involved an active shooter, but in the active shooter incidents, there have been 132 injuries and fatalities including the shooter, with a whopping 92 of those taking place from 2018 to now.

Then why don't you praise God for acting like God and deciding for himself when it is time to terminate a person's earthly life?  Could it be that there will always be a contradiction between your mammalian desire to preserve life, and your more philosophy that says some higher being is always good whenever he kills anybody?

And yet I, along with the historic Christian church, have the audacity to believe in a sovereign God who rules over all of this? Even more outrageous, I call this sovereign God good!

"Outrageous" is correct.   But in reality the issue is not that you are foolish to call such a bloody god "good", but rather whether unbelievers can be reasonable to say such a god is evil.

First, the philosophical question must be addressed: how can God be good if evil like this exists?

I prefer to first ensure we are talking about a real god before we start wading into the muddy waters of what he is like.  That's how I fuck up most Christian apologists.  If I refuse to discuss the traits of the toothfairy until I am sure she exists, I'm reasonable.  Nothing about the bible's existence imposes the slightest obligation to either refute it or agree with it. 

Next, the practical issue: how can Christians bring the gospel to those who have been affected by school shootings?

In other words, how can we manipulate the grieving surviving family members of murdered children so that these tragedies become opportunities to promote our religion? 

The problem of evil consistently has been an issue for apologetics and evangelism. In America, however, due to the rise in school shootings in recent years, it has become a politically charged national conversation. As time goes on, with each incident, more people have connections to these shootings, and so these attacks have started reaching us on a personal level.

Just tell yourself that the god who takes personal responsibility for causing all murder (Job 14:5) is "trying" to reach those people on a personal level.  Problem solved.  Spiritually mature people always happily praise god when he works his will in the world, since to become upset at what god is doing would contradict the witness of the Holy Spirit, correct? 

In the years since the Sandy Hook Elementary school shooting, I have known two people directly who have been the targets of random gun violence, and four more indirectly (relatives or friends of friends). For me, as for many, unjustified evil has become a serious philosophical prohibition to the spreading of the gospel in our culture.

Then you aren't remembering who you are or what you believe.  Your biblical world view does not allow you to believe in "unjustified" evil.  See Deut. 32:39 and Job 14:5.  If some crazy person walks into an elementary school and shoots dead several kids, your theology does not call this unjustified evil.  Your theology says "God is calling them home". 

Nonbelievers, rather than merely considering whether or not God exists, are now asking whether or not God is simply absent, woefully neglectful, or even overtly evil.

But because the bible says God is "good", there is potential to reasonably conclude that no "good" god would allow such evils, therefore, god may exist, but the biblical description of him is wrong therefore he cannot possibly exist as described. 

And now, due to the prevalence of these shootings, even people who have not been tied personally to an injury or death caused by a school shooting are asking these questions. Christians must be prepared to engage both abstract questions about the nature of God and to practice practical evangelism with tact, proper listening, and continued care.

"Christians must be prepared"?  Where are you getting that from?  I see nothing in the NT indicating anything therein "applies to us today".  Shall I wade through in-house Christian debates on which parts of the NT do and don't apply in 2023 (eschatology, dispensationalism, theonomy)?  If so, what source imposes any moral, spiritual or intellectual obligation on me to so wade?  And how do you know that source is talking about anybody living in the year 2023?

THE PHILOSOPHICAL PROBLEM OF EVIL
If God were truly all-knowing (omniscient), truly everywhere (omnipresent), truly powerful (omnipotent), and truly good (omnibenevolent), why would He not intervene and stop these shootings from happening?

Just tell yourself that "goodness" for god isn't always the same as "goodness" for human beings, and presto, behold the magic that can be achieved by simply defining a problem out of existence. 

He could part the clouds and strike the gunman dead. He could have caused the gunman never to have been born. He could have created a universe in which this shooting did not occur. But He didn’t.

The toothfairy also didn't do anything to stop those murders.  Maybe the toothfairy's ways are higher than our ways? 

He gave us these children, and then He let these precious children die.

Because he wanted them to die (Deut. 32:39, Job 14:5), and you are forced to concede that every act of God is "good".  Sounds like your problem, not mine, it's not even near a problem for unbelievers.  Your only possible explanation would be that God has the right to take life as he chooses, but the fact that such answer is comforting to you doesn't dictate that it be reasonable for unbelievers.

The Logical Problem of Evil
In response to the question of evil and suffering in this world, the Christian philosopher Alvin Plantinga demonstrates in his book God, Freedom, and Evil that there is no logical contradiction in saying that God is good while evil persists. The set of three propositions, “(1) God is omnipotent; (2) God is wholly good; and (3) Evil exists,” is neither explicitly nor implicitly contradictory. 

Sure, if you define "goodness" for God different from how you define "goodness" for human beings.  But all that would prove is that if you give a lawyer long enough, he can turn night into day by clever use of words.  We do not presuppose that "god" exists, nor that he is "good", nor that his alleged power suddenly renders his maximally wise in everything he does.  We interpret Genesis 6:5-6 literally as opposed to your non-literal and knee-jerk reactionary "anthropomorphic" interpretation, which is necessitated by absolutely nothing but a need to make that passage harmonize with everything else in the bible in the name of inerrancy.  We have atheist philosophers who insist your three propositions do result in contradiction.  See J. L. Mackie, "Evil and Omnipotence," Mind, New Series, Vol. 64, No. 254. (Apr., 1955), pp. 200-212.

What’s more, Plantinga sets forth a Free Will Defense, which negates any supposed inconsistency between the aforementioned set of propositions, and shows that any world with significantly free creatures necessarily has potential for those creatures to choose evil. He contends, “A world containing creatures who are significantly free (and freely perform more good than evil actions) is more valuable, all else being equal, than a world containing no free creatures at all.”

Except that there are two biblical paradigms that show that your god could have actually achieved a sinless world full of sinners, i.e., the world is not full of sin because we are sinners, its full of sin because God merely wants it to be that way when he doesn't "need" it to be that way:

a) Numbers 23:26, God causes the pagan prophet Balaam to refrain from cursing Israel, and since it is biblical, however that happened must surely be harmoninous with God's ideas about the need for human freedom.  Therefore if your god is all-powerful, he could similarly prevent similarly unbelieving people today from sinning.

b) Did God take away somebody's freewill in Daniel 4:33?  If I did to you all that was necessary to cause you to start doing what that king did after being cursed by god, would most Christians say I took away your freewill?

c)  In Ezekiel 38:4 and other passages before chap. 40, God's level of sovereignty over the wills of unbelievers is taught with the metaphor that says God puts hooks in their jaws and turns them around.  The mental image of a fisherman forcing a fish into the boat against its will after hooking it, is perfectly consistent with the apparent intention of the metaphor.  

Should you start balking that ancient Semitic people typically exaggerated for rhetorical effect, you throw into question most conservative Evangelical, Reformed and Catholic beliefs about God, each of which rest upon a decidedly literal interpretation of a theological statement in the bible.  If the book of Revelation says God is "omnipotent", is that literally true, or is that just an ancient Semitic exaggerated way of saying God has massive power? 

Other philosophers attack Plantinga's Freewill Defense.  See Justin Ykema, A Critique of the Free Will Defense A Comprehensive Look at Alvin Plantinga’s Solution To the Problem of Evil.


Through his Free Will Defense, Plantinga does not seek to give an explanation of God’s motives behind allowing the suffering or evil that He allows.

Then Plantinga leaves open the logical possibility that "god" has morally bad motives. 

Rather, Plantinga works to find a logical ground for why God does not necessitate only morally upright actions from the people He created.

Good luck finding anything in the bible to support the view that "God does not necessitate only morally upright actions from the people He created."  When you find a bible verse that says God asked anybody to do morally evil things, let me know how you felt about converting to Calvinism. 

In addition to this, he shows that it is logically consistent that those evil actions chosen by significantly free creatures do not reflect the will of God who created them, for, “He could have forestalled the occurrence of moral evil only by removing the possibility of moral good.”

Then how does Plantinga explain God forestalling moral evil, such as Numbers 23, the case of pagan prophet Balaam, whom God restrained from cursing Israel?  Maybe all Christian commentators are wrong, and Balaam's willingness to say whatever YHWH wanted is because he was a true follower of YHWH?  Then what could possibly have made Balak think Balaam was a good candidate for cursing God?  Did Balak go to the wrong tent?

Surely in some Christian circles, Plantinga’s emphasis on significantly free moral action would be considered problematic.

What is the Holy Spirit doing as he flutters above the head of the sincerely praying Calvinist?  Is the Holy Spirit "trying" to make the Calvinist see the light, but the divine intent is held back by Calvinist stupidity?

Or maybe you'd say the divine is held back by the Calvinist's unwillingness to see truth?

Gee, what fool Christian couldn't hurl that accusation at another to account for heresy? 

Luther, for example would say that in matters of faith, no moral action that merits salvation can be done outside of faith in Christ; however, he would affirm that moral action can be done spontaneously in terms of civil action. Plantinga makes no such distinction. The theological concerns here do not undermine the significance of the logical argument that Plantinga puts forth. In showing that God, being good, can exist and rule over a creation in which evil exists, he is not making a systematic theological argument but rather a logical one.

Sure, but if God has mysterious higher good reasons for allowing evil, then it becomes problematic to continue characterizing the evil in question as "evil".  Do we ignore the good that an "evil" brought about, and insist it is still fully evil, merely because of philosophical necessity?  Or only because modern democracy demands that we refrain from reclassifying certain "evils" as good?  Is the murder of a child evil because it breaks a biblical commandment?  Or good because it is God who caused it (Deut. 32:39)?  What would Dr. Frank Turek think of the fool who said the murder of a child is both good and bad depending on whether the perspective is divine or human?  Wouldn't he jump out of his moral absolutist skin and insist that god thinks the murder is evil too? 

Indeed, even atheist philosophers concede that Plantinga solved the logical problem of evil, showing that there just is no logical inconsistency between orthodox theism and the facts of evil and suffering we experience in the world.

But the problem of moral subjectivity and relativism comes to stay permanently just as soon as you say "An act can be evil for us to do, but can be good for God to do".  When we say child-rape is "evil", we usually don't mean "from our perspective", we mean it is absolutely evil period.

 

However, Plantinga acknowledges that his Free Will Defense is not the appropriate response to offer people in the midst of suffering. In the case of real-life evil, misery, and hardship, he calls one to seek pastoral care, not philosophical explanations.

And pastoral care cannot be more spiritual than to quote the bible in an effort to justify god at all costs. 

GOD’S SON WAS MURDERED

Then because it was God's "hand" that caused people to kill Jesus (Acts 4:27), that makes God guilty of murder no less than the truthful statement that it was your "hand" that caused somebody else to murder.  What fool would say "My hand caused that person to commit murder, but I am not responsible for that murder"?

The existential approach put forth by Christian philosopher Angus Menuge in his article “Gratuitous Evil and a God of Love” is centered on the coming of Jesus Christ in history to suffer for us.

Then it can contain nothing but sophistry and illusion, and is worthy only for the flames. 

Menuge argues that discussion of the problem of suffering begins and ends with the person and work of Jesus Christ on the Cross, for “Christ is God’s answer to the problem of evil” (emphasis added).

Except that smart people don't care about a person's attributes, until they become convinced that the person is actually real.  Except in the case of parents who explain tooth-fairies to toddlers.  And the case of Christians who jump at any chance to "show" that their concept of God is free from internal conflict.  And the case of atheists who might be in the mood to toy with apologists.

 

He explains that the problem of evil affects all of our hearts and minds, and “since evil is an immersive, existential condition, God answers by actions of love” (emphasis in original). The answer is therefore not abstract but utterly real, historical, and is revealed in the bloody God-man, Jesus Christ, suffering and dying for us on the Cross.

Hot air.  Dismissed.

God knows what it is like to have His Son die unjustly.

So?  How could it matter that it is possible for God to sympathize with us, when he is the one inflicting all the misery (Deut. 28:15-63?  How could it matter that a man sympathizes with a kidnapped child...if that man is the kidnapper? 

Jesus suffered the pain of a brutal death on the Cross. This is the difference between the Christian God and other gods: God came down from heaven and endured the pain of this world in order to save His creatures from eternal death — the very creatures at whose hands He would die.

Hot air.  Dismissed.

 

This can offer profound comfort for those who have suffered the loss of a child to gun violence, or for those of us who suffer from the anguish of seeing another suffer. The kind of anguish we face in this life is not foreign to God, and suffering is precisely the means by which God accomplished salvation for us.

Mormonism has an excellent track record of providing comfort to those who are grieving. So apparently, the ability of the sophistry to provide "comfort" does precisely nothing to justify pretending the comforting words are "true".


THE NOW AND THE NOT YET

Scripture speaks to the problems of suffering, pain, and premature death, but it even more robustly offers eschatological hope.

So do the Jehovah's Witnesses. 

When discussing the nature of our lives here on Earth, this side of heaven, the distinction between the now and the not yet is imperative. It is true that Jesus died on the Cross to reconcile us, to rescue us, to forgive us, and bring us into union with God; and it is true that those who believe enjoy some of these benefits now, but not to their full extent. The faithful must wait for Jesus’ return to receive them in full.

You just alienated all Christian preterists from the body of Christ.


Life in the now is characterized by suffering. We have been united to Christ in His suffering, not only in that He has suffered on our behalf but that we also, like Christ, cannot escape suffering in this world. Through suffering, furthermore, we are being molded and shaped to be more like Jesus.

Hot air, dismissed. 

However, we must be careful not to assure people of some assumed moral improvement as a result of suffering. In speaking to a parent of a child who had been murdered, we cannot approach them with, “Take heart! God is making you better,” or some such platitude.

Then you disagree with most Christian apologists who rely on God's mysterious good higher purposes to explain evil.   

Menuge condemns this, saying, “When God allows his creatures to suffer, it is not primarily because he has calculated some moral improvement that he can achieve for this life (although that may happen), but because he ‘desires all people to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth’ (1 Tim. 2:4).”

Then according to the reasoning of Menuge and apparently yourself, when God allows a little girl to be raped to death, it is because God ‘desires all people to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth’ (1 Tim. 2:4).”  Nice going.


Jesus says, “If anyone desires to come after Me, let him deny himself, and take up his cross, and follow me” (Matt. 16:24). The Christian cannot choose his or her cross. “He must leave that to God (1 Pet. 3:17; 1:6), for God alone knows which cross is beneficial and only God gives the strength needed to bear the cross (1 Cor. 10:13).”15 Our understanding is limited (Isa. 55:8–9).

Does God give the strength the little girl needs to endure a rape that ends with her hemorrhaging to death?  If so, what would such a rape situation look like if God had not given her such strength?  Would she have died the second the man threw her on the bed?

We cannot fathom why God has allowed us to endure the specific suffering that we must face.

Sure we can:  God is equally as pleased to inflict rape, kidnapping and parental cannibalism on disobedient people, as he is pleased to inflict prosperity on obedient people.  Deuteronomy 28:15-63, see esp. v. 63, the "delight" is the same in both cases.

 

We are not called to know the intricacies of what God is doing, but we are called to trust Him.

But if the guy in charge is killing people, his followers will either demand to know the intricacies, or they will quit following him.  Is this the part where you tell me that God is always the special exception?

 

And, in that vein, we can trust that God is working all things together for the good of those who love Him (Rom. 8:28).  However, Scripture shows us that the sufferings we endure are for us a promise of the eternal glory awaiting us, and assurance of our union with Christ (Rom. 8:17). Jesus, in His Revelation to John, explains that God Himself will dwell with His people in glory, and that “God will wipe away every tear from their eyes; there shall be no more death, nor sorrow, nor crying. There shall be no more pain, for the former things have passed away” (Rev. 21:3–4). In glory, we too will be glorified. In glory, there will be no more fear of premature death, no more concern to protect our children from violence, and no more mourning.
If you are going to quote the bible to make a point, why waste space with an article?  The bible says God is good, righteous and holy, so shouldn't that be the sufficient answer to anybody's problem with evil? 

EVANGELISM IN A TIME OF DESPAIR

Various philosophical approaches to the problem of evil can and will be entertained by our minds as we consider the impact of school shootings and whether or not God, being infinite in love and knowledge and power, could allow them to happen.

You forgot about another option.  Truth doesn't limit us to giving an answer that will help somebody reconcile reality with their religion.  It doesn't matter if God exists, the only way the "good" god of the bible and real evil could exists is if you redefine "good" so as to allow for crimes that we normally don't allow to be possible with any "good" (i.e., you will redefine "good" solely for the sake of ensuring there's no contradiction between your god and the reality of evil). 

But, there is a point where these approaches wax silent, and ministry begins. There is a moment you find yourself in a conversation about how gun violence in schools has affected a person’s own mind, soul, and spirit.

Sure, it was God, causing the gunman to kill the kids, so it was God who wanted to affect the minds, souls and spirits of the survivors.  Deut. 32:39.

I skip the rest of the article because it is nothing but preaching to the choir.  Lisa's article does nothing to render unreasonable the unbelievers who explain evil by God's non-existence, his apathy, or his evil desire to hurt people.

Thursday, April 20, 2023

Update on "Does your God approve of sex within adult-child marriages?"

I've been publicly attacking the biblical inerrancy doctrine since 2003.  The vast majority of inerrantists presume that the bible-god views pedophilia as a sin.  So to attack that view, I've been arguing for the last 20 years that this understandably popular doctrine has no support in the Mosaic Law.  The inference, that Christians seek to avoid like the plague, is that God doesn't condemn sex within adult-child marriages as sin, because he doesn't think such activity is sinful in the first place.  The whole notion that god thinks an act to be sin, but has nowhere plainly declared so, is theologically problematic.

The attack comes mostly in the form of arguing that Numbers 31:18 is not merely authorizing Hebrew soldiers to use underage girls as "house servants", it is also authorizing Hebrew soldiers to both marry and sexually consummate such marriage to such underage girls (i.e., sex within adult-child marriages, i.e, pedophilia).

17 "Now therefore, kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman who has known man intimately.

 18 "But all the girls who have not known man intimately, spare for yourselves.  (Num. 31:17-18 NAU)

As you can imagine, Christian apologists have for more than 20 years been hitting me with everything they can possibly think of to justify their tendency to create god in their own modern western democratic image, in their effort to show that by some strange coincidence, the Old Testament YHWH just happens to hate pedophilia equally as much as today's Americans do.

The link-fixes that appear below are some of my reasons why such attempts to avoid biblical moral disaster fail, and therefore, my view (that YHWH had, in the days of Moses, approved of sex within adult-child marriages), remains reasonable.

These arguments do not prove that Christians are wrong in how they interpret the bible.  The arguments only show that us atheists/skeptics can be reasonable to interpret the bible the way we do. That is, these arguments refute the Christians who characterize my view as "unreasonable".  They may hate that view, but they are absolutely paralyzed from proving it to be unreasonable.  None of my views arise from improper exegesis.  Thus they are forced to say the view is reasonable no matter how distasteful or religiously incorrect they think it is.

If you disagree, then your job is not to show that I'm "wrong" (because I don't claim I'm right), your job is rather to show that my arguments fail to establish the reasonableness of the interpretation I advocate.  That's a much more difficult goal to reach, for daily reality tells us we can possibly be reasonable even if wrong.  Only a stupid fool insists that everytime somebody gets something wrong, it is because their method of truth-seeking, if any, was unreasonable.  No, sometimes we make innocent mistakes.  

Reasonableness can arise from accuracy, but it by no means demands accuracy.  Therefore, "you are wrong" is not sufficient to show my views to be unreasonable.  You must show that my exegesis is so poor that no person concerned for truth could possibly condone it.

If you can't do that job, then you must live with the knowledge that yes, at least some atheist bible critics, even if not all of them, can possibly be reasonable to view the biblical YHWH has having approved of sexual relations within adult-child marriages back in the days of Moses.

Does your god approve of pedophilia? Part 1: sin is transgression of God's law

-------In this entry, I argue that Romans 7:7 forbids the notion that we can know sin without the Mosaic law, therefore, if in fact the Mosaic law doesn't clearly condemn pedophilia, then you have no biblical justification for saying God thinks sexual acts within adult-child marriages are sinful.  The truth is that Romans 7:7 is itself false, but as a Christian, you don't have the option of winning the debate that way, you are forever stuck with what Paul meant with his words.


Does your god approve of pedophilia? Part 2: We can know what sin is by our conscience?

------In this entry, I argue that because the bible founds the human conscience upon the Mosaic law, it is reasonable to deny that the OT YHWH thinks "conscience" is a way, independent of Mosaic law, to establish any act as sinful.  Thus if your conscience bothers you when thinking of pedophilia in 2023, we are reasonable to conclude this "pang", even if it came from the NT God, did not come from the OT YHWH.


Does your god approve of pedophilia? Part 3: We can know what sin is by intuition?

----forthcoming


Does your god approve of pedophilia? Part 4: "In non-essentials, liberty"

----In this entry, I argue that if my opponent is the type of Christian who believes in the popular conservative maxim "In essentials, unity; in non-essentials, liberty; and in all things, charity", then because the Mosaic Law fails to clearly condemn pedophilia, what a Christian in your congregation thinks God's opinion is concerning sexual relations within adult-child marriages, constitutes nothing more important than a "non-essential".  Thus if a Christian in your church in 2023 thinks God doesn't condemn sexual relations in adult-child marriages, we are reasonable to view you as under an obligation to give that Christian liberty of conscience on the subject, meaning, we are reasonable to condemn you if, because of his viewpoint on the subject, you ever disfellowship or excommunicate him.


Does your god approve of pedophilia? Part 5: God establishes all the secular laws

----forthcoming


Does your God approve of pedophilia? Part 6: God expects Hebrews to use their "common sense"

----In this entry I argue that nothing in the bible indicates God ever expected anybody to use their "common sense" to fill in moral gaps created by omissions in the Mosaic Law.  Thus we are reasonable to presume that silence in the Mosaic Law means silence from YHWH...a god that seems to have a need to condemn nearly everything he sees.


Does your God approve of pedophilia? Part 7: Ezekiel 16 establishes nothing except more apologetics embarrassment

------In this entry I argue that, contrary to the hopes of many apologists, nothing in Ezekiel 16 renders unreasonable my view that the in the days of Moses, YHWH approved of sexual relations within adult-child marriages.

Wednesday, April 19, 2023

My reply to Jonathon McLatchie on Numbers 31:18 and rape

This is my reply to an article by Dr. Jonathan McLatchie entitled

More than two years ago, I participated in a debate in Oxford, England, with atheist YouTuber Alex O’Connor (who goes by the online alias Cosmic Skeptic). The subject was “Why I Am / Am Not a Christian,” which was quite broad. Given the short time constraints of the debate and the breadth of the topic, we were regrettably unable to pursue an explication of our differences with the depth that I would prefer. 

And when I challenged you with a list of possible topics worded in a polite respectful manner, being the very first communication I ever sent to you, you absolutely refused to debate me for reasons having absolutely nothing to do with my ability or inability to significantly challenge you on the merits of your beliefs.  See here.

Nonetheless, I very much appreciated my interaction that evening with O’Connor, including the dinner we enjoyed together before the event.
You enjoyed having dinner with an atheist?  What fellowship hath light with darkness?  And you call yourself a bible-believing Christian?  Then so is John Dominic Crossan.
I have long viewed O’Connor as one of the more philosophically nuanced atheist thinkers, and I have valued our ongoing private discussions subsequent to our initial public dialogue. 
And what about the opinion of those other people in your Calvinist group, like Sye Bruggencate and Jeff Durbin, or their teachers Van Til, Greg Bahnsen and John Frame, who think anything an atheist has to say in defense of any non-Christian tenet is pure blasphemy?  Wow, I didn't know you valued blasphemy.  Or did I forget that Calvinism and presuppositionalism are houses divided no less than Protestantism is?  

My positive argument in the debate concerned the evidence for Jesus’ resurrection, while O’Connor focused on moral critiques of the Bible. 
Then such a lopsided debate likely had the convenient effect of allowing one side to avoid having to answer the more difficult questions, while had you both been debating a single solitary proposition, the cross-examination would have been more comprehensive.
In his portion of the cross-examination, O’Connor chose to focus on the issue of slavery in the Old Testament. The last of the texts we discussed was Numbers 31:15-18, which was interpreted by O’Connor to endorse sexual slavery. At the time, this was not an issue that I had researched with great depth, though I recognized it as a difficult text. My preparation for the debate had largely been on the evidences for New Testament reliability, and its epistemic relevance to developing a robust case for the resurrection. I therefore acknowledged it as a difficult text without offering any detailed response. 
If you weren't such a cessationist, you would not have needed time to prepare for the subject matter anymore than would the people Jesus described as puppets in Matthew 10:20.  You worry too much.  Just let go and let God. 

If you are not a cessationist, then why didn't the Holy Spirit do for the unprepared you, what He allegedly did for the apostles when they needed to give answers?  Maybe you didn't pray enough?  Maybe you had secret or unconfessed sin in your life?  Or must I assume, contrary to the NT, that the spiritual world had nothing to do with you being less prepared than you wished to be?

Earlier this week, Alex O’Connor uploaded the clip from our debate, in which this text was discussed, to his Cosmic Clips spin-off channel. I therefore thought it an appropriate time to publish an article offering my current perspective on this difficult text. Here is the passage under discussion (Num 31:15-18):
15 “Have you allowed all the women to live?” he [Moses] asked them. 16 “They were the ones who followed Balaam’s advice and enticed the Israelites to be unfaithful to the Lord in the Peor incident, so that a plague struck the Lord’s people. 17 Now kill all the boys. And kill every woman who has slept with a man, 18 but save for yourselves every girl who has never slept with a man.
The first thing to note about this text is that it is not technically God who gives the instructions. Thus, on the worst case scenario, one may interpret this text as being descriptive of Moses’ command, rather than it being an act endorsed by God. Nonetheless, even supposing (as I think is more likely) that Moses’ instruction carries with it God’s approval, I do not believe it to be as problematic as it might appear on first impression.
Good save:  God told Moses to take "full" vengeance on the Midianites (Numbers 31:2), so it was intended to be a genocide.

O’Connor believes that this text gives permission to the Hebrew soldiers to rape Midianite war captives.
He's not going far enough, Numbers 31:18 constitutes Moses' advocating marital pedophilia.  O'Connor didn't hit you as hard as he possibly could have.  You should thank him for having mercy on you.
However, such an interpretation would fly in the face of every piece of clear moral legislation on sexual relations that we have in the Hebrew Bible. 
How do you expect your "scripture interprets scripture" rule to be the least bit impressive or obligatory on an unbeliever who clearly denies biblical inerrancy and biblical consistency?

Do you the juror demand that the prosecutor reconcile all of his theories of the case with everything the suspect said on the witness stand?  No.

There is no universally recognized rule of historiography, hermeneutics or common sense that obligates anybody to presume moral consistency in a text of theocratic rules that allegedly began in somewhere between 1400 b.c. and 650 b.c., the original text of which most scholars think has been altered numerous times over the centuries, with definite anachronisms?  

There is nothing the least bit unreasonable in the unbeliever-hermeneutic that says that on account of the Hebrew texts admitting they fell into idolatry nearly every day, charging them with inconsistent legislation is about as worrisome as charging the Canaanites with inconsistent legislation.

For example, in Deuteronomy 22:23-27:
23 “If there is a betrothed virgin, and a man meets her in the city and lies with her, 24 then you shall bring them both out to the gate of that city, and you shall stone them to death with stones, the young woman because she did not cry for help though she was in the city, and the man because he violated his neighbor’s wife. So you shall purge the evil from your midst. 25 “But if in the open country a man meets a young woman who is betrothed, and the man seizes her and lies with her, then only the man who lay with her shall die. 26 But you shall do nothing to the young woman; she has committed no offense punishable by death. For this case is like that of a man attacking and murdering his neighbor, 27 because he met her in the open country, and though the betrothed young woman cried for help there was no one to rescue her. [emphasis added]
According to this text, the crime of rape is so serious that it is punishable by death.

Your excluding vv. 28-29 was apparently intentional, because it restores the moral depravity you so desperately try to remove:
 28 "If a man finds a girl who is a virgin, who is not engaged, and seizes her and lies with her and they are discovered,
 29 then the man who lay with her shall give to the girl's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall become his wife because he has violated her; he cannot divorce her all his days. (Deut. 22:28-29 NAU)
The moral depravity here is in forcing the rapist to marry the victim, when in fact this particular legislation does not express or imply that the victim is allowed to deny the marriage.  Trinitarian inerrantist scholars explain that v. 28 is also describing the man taking the woman by force, so that the victim in v. 28 was forced to marry the rapist even though she was forced into the sex act:

22:28–29 At first glance the next example, the rape of an unbetrothed girl, might appear to have been a lesser offense than those already described, but this was not the case at all. First, he seized (Heb. tāpaś, “lay hold of”) her and then lay down (šākab) with her, a clear case of violent, coercive behavior.
Merrill, E. H. (2001, c1994). Vol. 4: Deuteronomy (electronic ed.). Logos Library System; The New American Commentary (Page 305). Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.
What fool would trifle that the victim of a "clear case of violent, coercive" rape was also somehow "willing"?  I do not argue that Merrill's view is necessarily correct, only that its existence prevents YOU from justifiably accusing my more negative appraisal as unreasonable.
If the woman failed to scream for help when she was in the city and could be heard, the Jewish law viewed the situation as consensual sex rather than rape, since the woman could have cried out for someone to rescue her but didn’t.
A bit of unforgivable stupidity since common sense dictates that the man could either prevent her screaming by muffling her, or threatening her life.
Thus, both parties were guilty. However, if the sexual assault took place in a rural area where the woman had no chance of being heard, the Jewish law gave the woman the benefit of the doubt and she was not to be considered culpable.
Which is also stupid since nothing about the place the sex act occurred would say anything authoritative about whether she was willing.
One might object here that women captured in war were not afforded the same rights as women belonging to the people of Israel, and thus this consideration offers little help with regards to the text of our study. However, the previous chapter in Deuteronomy concerns the rights of women who are captured in war (Deut 21:10-14):
A text that neither expresses nor implies that the woman had any right to refuse the marriage.  You quote as follows:
10 “When you go out to war against your enemies, and the LORD your God gives them into your hand and you take them captive, 11 and you see among the captives a beautiful woman, and you desire to take her to be your wife, 12 and you bring her home to your house, she shall shave her head and pare her nails. 13 And she shall take off the clothes in which she was captured and shall remain in your house and lament her father and her mother a full month. After that you may go in to her and be her husband, and she shall be your wife. 14 But if you no longer delight in her, you shall let her go where she wants. But you shall not sell her for money, nor shall you treat her as a slave, since you have humiliated her. [emphasis added]
McLatchie continues:
Therefore, while the Hebrew soldiers were permitted to marry female war captives, they were not permitted to rape them or treat them as slaves.
The "Good News" Translation of v. 14 makes plain that this rite involved rape:
14 Later, if you no longer want her, you are to let her go free. Since you forced her to have intercourse with you, you cannot treat her as a slave and sell her.
See here.  McLatchie continues:
 The woman was also to have a month to mourn the loss of her kin prior to getting married. 
Oh, ok, so if I kidnap your 18 year old daughter and deal with her exactly as Deuteronomy 21:10-14 allowed a Hebrew man to deal with a female war-captive, then you'd conclude I was treating her "right"?
Daniel Block notes, “This monthlong quarantine expresses respect for the woman’s ties to her family of origin and her own psychological and emotional health, providing a cushion from the shock of being torn from her own family.” 
Then that is respect for pagan theology and idolatry, since the woman's family ties would have been formed in idolatrous contexts.  Gee, is tolerance for her family ties what was meant by a Mosaic author whose purpose in killing her family was his intolerance of idolatry?
[1] Indeed, as John Wenham comments, “In a world where there are wars, and therefore prisoners of war, such regulations in fact set a high standard of conduct.” 
Some would say that making her shave her head and remove her clothes merely adds unnecessarily to the humiliation.  Your idea that this is supposed to be a "nice" thing is absurd, and you'd never conclude any such foolishness if somebody kidnapped your 18 year old daughter today and followed out all the permissions and requirements in that passage.  You only make excuses and hem and haw because nobody has subjected YOU to such degredation.
[2] Furthermore, by becoming part of the people of Israel (and possessing full status as a wife), the women would be delivered from pagan idolatry and exposed instead to Israelite religion concerning the true God, thereby having opportunity to attain salvation.
Meaning: we should be amazed at how the Hebrews who killed her family, acted nice to her after kidnapping her and forcing her into a marriage with one of the people who killed her family.  Sorry, I'm not feeling that.  Try again.
The historical context of the war against the Midianites is also important to bear in mind as we evaluate our text. Numbers 31:16 indicates that the Midianite women “were the ones who followed Balaam’s advice and enticed the Israelites to be unfaithful to the Lord in the Peor incident, so that a plague struck the Lord’s people.” 
Then we wonder why Moses didn't also kill off the children of the Hebrew soldiers who sinned there, no less than he ordered the killing of the children of the Midianites in Numbers 31:17.  But sometimes, demanding consistency from a dictator is out of step with the barbarisms of the ANE.  My bad.
This is an allusion to Numbers 25:1-9, in which we read of an occasion where the Midianites devised a plot to entice Israel into pagan worship involving making sacrifices to Baal and ritual sex. According to Moses, the Midianite women were among those who “enticed the Israelites to be unfaithful to the Lord” (Num 31:16). Thus, the women who were permitted to live and marry into Israel (that is, those who had not known man by lying with him) were presumably those who had not been involved in enticing the men of Israel into sexual impurity.
Moses is a hypocrite:  he kills the Midianite babies apparently because he ascribed to some type of corporate-responsibility ethic, but he does NOT kill the babies of the Hebrew men who participated in that sin.  How convenient.
Another consideration, often overlooked in discussions of our text, is that we are not informed what happened to young woman who were brought into the Israelite camp but who did not wish to marry the men who had just slaughtered their kin. 
No, the text that allows the Hebrew soldier to marry the daughter of parents he recently killed, neither expresses nor implies the girl had the least bit of choice in the matter.  If the Hebrews were stupid enough to kill her family, we can hypothesize they were also stupid enough to give her as much say in whether to marry, as they gave to her parents on whether to die.
We can hypothesize that they were forced into it anyway, but we can equally hypothesize that they were allowed to make themselves useful as virgins until such a time as someone more suitable presented himself. 
What fool would seriously tell himself that where women of a cult tempt other men to sin sexually, surely the virgins in that cult couldn't possibly be culpable?  Did the Hebrews think only vaginal intercourse counted as sexual sin?  When Moses spared the women who were still virgins, wasn't he taking a chance that in the spared group were a few virgins who had engaged in forms of sex that leave virginity intact, such as fellatio, cunnilingus, anal sex, i.e.,  participating in the Midianite sin but preserving their virginal status?

If he really was taking a such a chance, how can we be unreasonable to say he was just a stupid gullible dictator without any god to make actual truth known to him?

You also have the option of saying they were not dolts, and the reason they deny culpability to the still virgin girls is because the Hebrews honestly didn't see anal sex, fellatio or cunnilingus as adultery or fornication...but you aren't in the business of making concessions that open the door for today's Christians to fornicate without fornicating, right?
This is simply not stated or even intimated in the text. Thus, if there were women who were averse to being married to an interested Israelite soldier, we just do not know what happened.
If you don't know what happened, you cannot render improbable the possibility that they were forced into the marriage.
Moreover, even if on occasion something bad happened — and there is no reason to deny that sometimes it may have — it is not something we are told was done by command of God.
But if there was any forcing, it would have been justified by appeal to Deuteronomy 21:10-14.  So, Jonathan....do you believe that passage is the inspired inerrant word of God, yes or no?

When Moses gave the requirements as recited in that passage, was God speaking through him, yes or no?
In conclusion, though Numbers 31:13-18 is undoubtedly a difficult text, especially from the vantage point of our twenty-first century western culture, the text becomes, upon closer inspection, significantly less problematic than it appears at first impression. 
You can save your campaign speech until after you have shown the Good News "rape" Translation of Deut. 21:14 to be unreasonable or incorrect.  You highly doubt you'll ever do that, right?
The Pentateuch outlined the rights of female war captives, and they were not allowed to be treated as a slave or sex object.
Those who killed a girl's parents forced her to marry one of the guilty Hebrew soldiers, in a way that wasn't quite as barbaric as would have been allowed in pagan cultures.  Congratulations.  I'm experiencing a heart attack right now because of how guilty I feel about my sin.  Nice job.  Do you have any dust and ashes I could borrow?
The Pentateuch also takes a very negative view of rape.
According to the Good News Translation of Deuteronomy 21:14, God must have intended this rite to result in rape.
Most likely, the women who were spared were not involved in enticing Israel into sexual impurity during the incident at Peor. Finally, we are not informed by the text what the arrangements were for women who did not wish to marry an interested Israelite soldier, and so any suggestion of what may have happened is mere conjecture.
But my conjectures cannot be shown to be unreasonable.  Your assumption that the multiple authors of the Pentateuch were honestly trying to give future readers exactly what Moses wrote, is also mere conjecture.  If the Hebrews were as prone to corruption as every page of the Pentateuch says, we have no reason to pretend their scribes were any exception. 


Footnotes
8 thoughts on “Does the Bible Support Sexual Slavery? An Analysis of Numbers 31:15-18”


JOHN RICHARDS
DECEMBER 24, 2021 AT 12:49 PM

Labelling the Numbers text as ‘difficult’ reveals your point of view – that of a presuppositionist.

I don’t find it at all difficult!

It also reveals your assumption that the Bible is a reliable source of information…
Reply


KEVIN ROSS
DECEMBER 24, 2021 AT 9:57 PM

Of course you don’t find it problematic. Your presuppositions ensure that any misunderstanding of the text remains a live option.
Reply



JMCLATCHIE
DECEMBER 25, 2021 AT 4:18 PM

John Richards: Anyone with a cursory familiarity with my work knows of my staunch opposition to presuppositionalism. Contrary to the insinuation of your comment, it is not an entailment of evidentialism that, for one to be rational in holding a belief, that belief can admit no difficulties.
Reply

-----------------turchisrong replies, April 19, 2023
Then you, McLatchie, must confess that it is possible for an atheist to be rational in holding to atheism, even if atheism presents "difficulties".

============================continuing:

PETER
DECEMBER 24, 2021 AT 2:53 PM

Definitely appreciate addressing this. It really is an uncharitable reading that doesn’t even make sense (e.g. Kill the Canaanite non virgin women and Isrealite men for inappropriate sexual acts, and keep the Virgin women so you can… Do more inappropriate sexual acts!??!?), so it’s nice to see a complete response to it.
Reply


JESSE
JULY 22, 2022 AT 2:00 AM

Remember the sexual idolatry of Balaam’s sin led Israel to experience a plague, for which Moses killed many Israelites, both to punish the sin and to stop the spread of disease. Notice the emphasis on the cleansing rituals to ensure they did not carry back to the camp any plagues; ie STD’s. Sexual idolotry. Orgies. Even with children. Remember these tribes which surrounded Israel were accused of cannibalism and human sacrifice of children as well as incest and bestiality, and archaeological findings do support those claims.
Reply



DAVID MADISON
DECEMBER 26, 2021 AT 10:02 PM

The world in which God revealed Himself was very different from today’s world. It was a world in which warfare was common and the consequences for defeated peoples were often terrible. Marrying the men who had conquered you is not a particularly attractive option but it is better than the alternative. What we often find in the Old Testament is a way of doing things that limits harm.

Atheists are dismissive of this. Their usual response is to ask why God didn’t just come along and impose modern values on the people who lived 3000 years ago. This is remarkably shallow. Life was brutal 3000 years ago. The reason why it was brutal is that this is what human nature is capable of. And it still is. Christianity offers us the hope of deliverance from our corrupt nature but this hope is not something we have any right to expect.
Reply

----------------------------------------turchisrong replies, April 19, 2023
Their usual response is to ask why God didn’t just come along and impose modern values on the people who lived 3000 years ago. This is remarkably shallow. Life was brutal 3000 years ago. The reason why it was brutal is that this is what human nature is capable of. And it still is. 
Then how do you explain God preventing the pagan prophet Balaam from cursing Israel in Numbers 22:38, 23:8, 12?  Wasn't life during Numbers 22 equally as brutal as it was in Numbers 31?

What we find here is that your God has no excuse:  Not only can God prevent pagans from sinning, the fact that he did so at least once proves that he is far more willing to violate human freewill than today's freewiller Christians wish to admit.  

And God can cause pagans to both know his will and obey it even if they are idolaters.  See Ezra 1:1.

So the skeptic is reasonable to say that your god is sadistic:  he clearly does have a viable way of preventing humans from sinning, but no, he prefers to take the route that causes unnecessary misery and bloodshed.  Sort of like the fool who has a choice between drawing money out of his account to pay the rent, or robbing the bank to pay the rent, and he chooses the latter despite the former being entirely sufficient to the purpose.

Friday, December 23, 2022

My answer to email from Christian apologist Frank Turek

 I received more ads from Turek in my email, and one of them summarizes his position, so I respond in kind:

It's that time of year again! You're sitting around with family at the Christmas dinner table, and Uncle Joe insists on picking apart your Christian faith. What's the best way to respond? Ignore him while you play with your mashed potatoes? Or do you try to refute his objections?

I'd say play with the mashed potatoes, since otherwise, to engage him would be to enable him to listen to himself respond, which creates a vicious circle of self-validation.

You know you need to give the reason for the hope that you have, but how can you engage with his statements without starting a family feud? 

No, Christians of today do NOT "know" that they need to give a reason for the hope they have.  All that crap is found in the NT, and you couldn't prove that any of it applies to modern people if your life depended on it.  There are perfectly sufficient purely naturalistic explanations for the survival of the bible into modern times, otherwise, you'd have to say the Apocrypha and Dead Sea Scrolls "apply to us today".  

In this week's episode of I Don't Have Enough Faith to Be an Atheist, I explain that every objection to the Christian faith assumes a standard beyond the person who is making the objection.

Then you are wrong.  The criticism that god was evil in the OT arises from morality that goes no higher than the atheist's own genetic predispositions and his environmental conditioning. The only reason you succeed at this scheme of yours is because most atheists and skeptics do not have a degree in moral philosophy, and therefore are not themselves straight about why it is that a human being classifies the actions of somebody else as "evil".  Your scheme doesn't work on atheists who know what they are talking about, like me, because I correctly discern that my basis for saying the Nazis were "wrong" is not "transcendant", but goes no deeper than my own genetic predispositions and environmental conditioning.

 I also provide examples of simple questions you can ask Uncle Joe (and others like him!) to place a seed of doubt in his assertion that something is wrong with the Christian worldview. 

I promote atheism the same way.  Here's a seed of doubt for you:  Why do you automatically leap from "the NT applies to 1st-century unbelievers", over to "the NT applies to 21st century unbelievers"?  Exactly how "clear" is it that anything in the NT "applies to us today", and why shouldn't spiritually dead unbelievers balk at such a notion on the basis that even spiritually alive Christians have been ceaselessly embroiled in disagreements for 2,000 years on whether something in the NT does or doesn't "apply to us today" (i.e., Dispensationalism, Cessationism v. Charismatics, Lordship Salvation v. Easy Grace)?

What would be unreasonable about deducing from the fact of sincere persistent doctrinal disagreement among serious born again conservatives that if there is any god running the show, he doesn't give a shit that his people disagree about doctrine?  Sure, that would fuck up a few things you believe about your classical theist god, but that's the price you pay if you criticize a reasonable viewpoint held by many unbelievers.

The show addresses some of the most common objections to Christianity, including: God does immoral things in the Old Testament 

As an atheist who knows what he is talking about, as opposed to the bumbling youngsters you meet in colleges, my accusation that god did evil in the OT arises from the philosophical contention that if we don't call that god evil, then we will be forced to the absurd contention that we can no longer call pedophilia evil, NOW, we have to hedge and say "it depends on perspective: it's evil from a human perspective, but from god's perspective, maybe god knew through his ripple-effect that allowing a man to rape a child today will be necessary to make sure some yak in Ethiopia hears the gospel in the year 2805."

There's too much evil in the world 

I would never make that objection, as the book of Job makes clear that God intends all the evil in the world, because its reasonable to assume from Job that the reason bad things happen to good people is because they are mere pawns in an ego-war between God and the devil.  You need to stop assuming God cares, because otherwise this  leads to the difficulty of why a caring god would allow evil.  From Job, it is clear that God cares more about proving the devil wrong than he cares about our physical and psychological well-being.  And yet Frank Turek NEVER tells anybody Job's explanation for why god allows bad things to happen to good people. 

Christians are hypocrites and do evil things 

That doesn't prove god doesn't exist.  It only proves that God's promises of spiritual maturity to those who sincerely seek him are false, otherwise, you'd be forced to take the bigoted position that if any Christian is hypocritical in some way, this is because they aren't truly born again, or they aren't sufficiently sincere toward god.   Under that logic, you'd have to accuse Paul of lacking salvation or sincerety since he confessed to having a "thorn in the flesh".

Christianity is too exclusive 

That's a moral criticizm of fundamentalism.  And Frank Turek says everybody gets their moral sense from god, so, what would be unreasonable in saying "Christianity is too exlcusive" seems true to a lot of people because that is precisely what god is telling them?

God doesn't show himself enough 

The more refined version of the argument is that if God had anywhere near the level of concern to save me as is manifested by fundamentalist evangelists, he would NOT stay "hidden" behind this "bible is historically reliable" dogshit anymore than he would have stayed silent toward Saul and expected that Pharisaic fool to recognize the need to exegete the OT in Christ-o-centric fashion.  You have your "god's ways are mysterious" trifle, but your error is in assuming that because that excuse makes YOU reasonable, it must create the logical consequence of causing those who disagree with you to become unreasonable.  Reasonableness doesn't work the way accuracy does, therefore reasonableness for you doesn't dictate the limits of reasonableness for somebody else...especially if we move beyond banal modern daily life into esoteric bullshit like 3,000 year old theology.  Otherwise, you could just as easily characterize the Christians who doctrinally differ from you as being "unreasonable", and there you go:  you become a bigot again, and the way your brain fizzes dictates what reality says to the brains of other people.  You either become a bigot, or it can possibly be reasonable to disagree with your views about theology.

The Bible doesn't recognize LGBTQ+ rights

because when the bible books were being formed, maintaining family was paramount...and that could never have been done if half the Jews were gay.  In the ancient world, gay means to disappear from the gene-pool, thus apparently nature has determined that gay is no good.  The fact that modern technology enables gays to thwart nature without nature's effects (to always avoid heterosexual intercourse is to disappear from the genepool) no more justifies fags than would the argument that says modern technology enables pedophiles to thwart nature without experiencing nature's intended effects (the adults in the village seeking to kill him).  Gays need to learn:  we can tell what would count as "defect" in the human population.  Since heterosexuality is and always has been normative, gay becomes the defect no less than does the hermaphrodite.  My own opinion is that modern society would have a lot less sexual sin if it never created ways to thwart nature.  If you always see naked women from childhood, you tend not to lust, and ancient American indians were noted by white explorers for lacking lust.  If we never enabled birth control, we'd refrain from sexual intercourse unless we intended to produce children.  Modern society's clever ways at helping people avoid the consequences that naturally came with sexual activity is precisely why most people think it is ok to constantly lust and constantly use sex to sell ads.

There's no evidence for God ​ 

that's true, but I prefer to instead ask how "god" could possibly matter, given that no Christian apologist has any better than a snowball's chance in hell of showing that something in the bible "applies to us today".  Thus, denying the 'truth' about god appears to be about as unacceptably dangerous as denying the existence of a jelly-stain in a landfill.  God's existence cannot be argued to be a danger to those who knowingly reject the true gospel, so why should anybody worry that denying god is to deny truth, any more than they would worry that denying the existence of frozen methane on Pluto is to deny truth?  If denial of a truth cannot be shown to make the least bit of difference, why should the denier care?  Bigoted idiot apologists will say "because smart people care about truth", but it could just as easily be argued that it is only a stupid person who decides to believe the "gospel", join some "church", and therefore invite into their lives a shitload of extra bickering that they don't really need.  The person who never gets married thinks missing out on "love" is better than to have loved and lost.  The person who never bothers believing in "god" thinks missing out on such an esoteric controversial thing is better than getting caught up in heresies, church splits, apologetics disputes and moralizing crap that always seems to accompany conversion to theism.

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Tuesday, October 11, 2022

My Second Reply to Jonathan McLatchie on ECREE

This is my reply to an article by Jonathan McLatchie entitled


A popular slogan among many contemporary atheists is that “extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence”. The slogan itself goes back to the late astronomer Carl Sagan [1], though similar ideas were expressed by David Hume, who wrote “that no testimony is sufficient to establish a miracle, unless the testimony be of such a kind, that its falsehood would be more miraculous, than the fact, which it endeavours to establish.” [2] Indeed, so confident was David Hume about this principle that he said, humble man that he was, “I flatter myself that I have discovered an argument…which, if just, will, with the wise and learned, be an everlasting check to all kinds of superstitious delusion, and consequently, will be useful as long as the world endures.” [3]

So far, so good. 

This principle has led many skeptics to push the bar of demonstration so unreasonably high that it cannot possibly be cleared by any amount of testimonial evidence. And atheists seldom attempt to define what precisely is meant by “extraordinary”, or what sort of evidence would be sufficient to demonstrate an extraordinary event. As such, it has become a lazy excuse of many atheists for not dealing with the evidence for miraculous events such as the resurrection, but instead to dismiss it by appeal to Sagan’s dictum or to David Hume’s treatise against miracles (which the skeptic has seldom read for himself).

That's true to a large extent, but the reader should remember that when you refute the lazy incorrect atheist for their employment of ECREE, you are NOT refuting the intellectually superior atheists, like me, who have responsibly and fairly defined ECREE.  Your winning a debate against a lazy atheist is akin to me winning a debate against a snake-handling Pentecostal.  Gee, is that progress or what?

In this article, I will argue that the dictum that extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence, and the philosophy of David Hume that it encapsulates, are fundamentally wrong-headed.

Fallacy of guilty by association.  First, lazy atheists are not authoritative sources for fair definitions of ECREE.  Second, you condemn yourself by accusing ECREE of being wrong-headed, since you employ it against every miracle claim you evaluate.  But the reason you overlooked that was because you chose to base ECREE in how lazy atheists define it.  When it is defined fairly and objectively, it merely described how most people, including Christians react to extraordinary news the first time they hear it. 

Signs and the Order of Nature
What is the stated purpose of miracles in religious contexts? According to Scripture, miracles function as signs that authenticate the message of the person performing them.

Do you seriously expect the atheist or skeptic to respect a 'scriptural' description of the purpose of a miracle?  By appeal to "scripture", a smart guy like you surely realizes he is no longer foisting an intellectual obligation on skeptics, he is merely preaching to the choir. 

For example, when Jesus is asked by disciples of John the Baptist whether He is the Messiah, or whether they should be waiting for another, Jesus replies, “Go and tell John what you hear and see: the blind receive their sight and the lame walk, lepers are cleansed and the deaf hear, and the dead are raised up, and the poor have good news preached to them. And blessed is the one who is not offended by me,” (Mt 11:4-6). In other words, Jesus’ miracles were signs that authenticated His message.

If the signs are intended to authenticate the message, then why shouldn't we infer from your belief that some Roman Catholic miracle claims are true, that that Roman Catholic message (i.e., Catholic theology) is true?  And yet the bible is not consistent about the purpose of miracles, because in Deuteronomy 13:1-5 God admits that if a false prophet does a genuinely supernatural miracle, this is not to confirm his theology, this is God using the false prophet to "test Israel". 

The gospel of John refers to Jesus’ miracles as “signs.”

Correct.  And it also blindly leaps from Jesus performing a sign, to Jesus being the true messiah.  John was apparently blind to the grim possibility that God will enable a false prophet's predictions to come true in a supernatural way because God is testing Israel. 

Towards the conclusion of his gospel, John writes, “Now Jesus did many other signs in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these are written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name,” (Jn 20:30-31).
If the purpose of miracles in religious contexts, therefore, is to function as signs, then they have to take place against the backdrop of a stable, uniform, natural order, since it is by contrast with a stable, uniform, natural order that miracles are able to serve as signs.

Fair enough. 

Consider, for instance, the relevance of the abnormal character of the resurrection to the epistemic value of Jesus being raised from the dead. If people were routinely rising from the dead then the resurrection of Jesus would lose its epistemic value, since it would not be an event that could be distinguished from the way that nature normally operates. It is precisely because it is unique, and is an interruption of the regularities of nature that we can appeal to the resurrection as God’s vindication of the claims of Jesus of Nazareth to be the Messiah and Savior of the world.

It doesn't matter if that is true, you are still leaping too quickly from "Jesus performed a genuinely supernatural miracle" over to "surely God approved of Jesus' theology", and in doing so you defy Deuteronomy 13:1-5.  You also defy plenty of other bible passages indicating God allows the devil to perform genuinely supernatural feats for the purpose of deception.   

Thus, since miraculous signs require that there be a stable natural order, the existence of such a stable natural order cannot be taken as an argument against the occurrence of miracles in religious contexts.

Then you'll be having lots of trouble with me.  I'm not one of those skeptics who blindly follow Hume into his "miracles are impossible" errors.  I allow for the possibility of miracles.  The way I stab apologetics in the heart is by asking the apologist to produce the one miracle claim they feel is most impervious to a naturalistic interpretation.  I issued that challenge to Craig Keener years ago, and for reasons that should be clear from my challenge, he did not dare respond.  See here.

This point was first raised in response to David Hume by William Adams, who wrote that “An experienced uniformity in the course of nature hath always thought necessary to the belief and use of miracles. These are indeed relative ideas. There must be an ordinary regular course of nature, before there can be any thing extraordinary. A river must flow, before its stream can be interrupted.” [4] Philosopher Dr. Tim McGrew, of Western Michigan University, concurs: “The fact that in our ordinary experience dead men stay dead

Apparently Dr. McGrew has fallen into Humes error too:  How does McGrew know that dead people staying dead is the "ordinary experience" of other people?  Isn't that equally as fallacious as the atheist view that says nobody else has experienced a miracle?

cannot be a significant piece of evidence against the resurrection considered as a miraculous sign — that is, it will not do the work that Hume wants it to do in the very sort of religious context where he is most implacably skeptical.” [5]
Can Testimony Ever Be Sufficient to Establish a Miracle?

Not if a) the bible has god warning people of divine wrath against heresy, and b) the unbeliever in question is so worried about imperfect people leading her into heresy and thus into hell that she refuses to allow any imperfect person to guide her thinking about biblical miracle claims.  What are you gonna do now?  Chortle that she "should" be willing to increase the risk of heresy by allowing imperfect and possibly heretical Christians to influence how she processes miracle claims?  Until the day you show that biblical warnings of divine wrath against heresy are god's way of "just kidding", you cannot fault this unbeliever for noticing that most hell-bound heresy has come from imperfect Christians, and choosing to exclude imperfect people from those whom she will allow to teach her about "truth".

It may be admitted that miraculous events do require more evidence to establish them than do mundane events, since the prior probability (that is, their probability given the background information) is lower than for mundane events. I shall return later to why miraculous claims are rightly treated differently from mundane ones. However, I shall note here that any proposition with a non-zero prior probability can, in principle, be demonstrated with sufficient evidence. The eighteenth century British Bishop Thomas Sherlock wrote concerning the resurrection, “I do allow that this case, and others of like nature, require more evidence to give them credit than ordinary cases do. You may therefore require more evidence in these than in other cases; but it is absurd to say that such cases admit no evidence, when the things in question are quite manifestly objects of sense.” [6]

What you aren't telling the reader is why there are apparently no rules of historiography, evidence, hermeneutics or common sense that enable two equally mature educated adults to resolve their disagreement on which evidence to credit and which to disregard.  The truth is that no such rules exist.  If a skeptic says his standard of evidence for Jesus' resurrection-miracle is a personal vision straight from god, you could not possibly get near "showing" that his standard of evidence for theological claims is "too high".  It is only rational for him to fear the bible-god's thunderings against Christians who teach heresy, and to therefore take extreme measures to ensure he doesn't end up in eternal misery, or that nasty surprise Jesus said would be endured in judgment by those who in this world called Jesus "Lord, Lord."  Matthew 7:22-23.   Of course, there is no god, spirit, devil or supernatural.  But so long as you insist on using the bible, you become sandbagged by the bible's unrealistically conspiratorial views.  If things really are as bad and deceptive as the bible says, you can hardly blame anybody for refusing to trust imperfect sinners on critical theological matters which allegedly have potential to land a person in eternal misery.

In 2000, philosopher John Earman, himself a religious agnostic, published a book by the provocative title Hume’s Abject Failure — The Argument Against Miracles. [7] Earman cites the nineteenth century philosopher and mathematician Charles Babbage, who wrote that “if independent witnesses can be found, who speak the truth more frequently than falsehood, it is ALWAYS possible to assign a number of independent witnesses, the improbability of the falsehood of whose concurring testimonies shall be greater than that of the improbability of the miracle itself,” [8]

What he didn't account for is that liars who want their lie to successfully deceive others, have just as much interest as honest authors in surrounding their main contentions with nuggets of historical truth.  YOU will say if the parts of the author's testimony that can be checked turn out to be true, we should trust the parts of his testimony that cannot be checked.  But I would more objectively insist that if the parts of the witnesses testimony that can be checked turn out to be true, that's not enough for us to decide whether he is including truthful details because he is generally honest, or if he is including truthful details to make his lie "ring true".

What do you suppose would happen to the American justice system if it adopted a new pattern jury instruction saying "If you find that the parts of the criminal Defendant's testimony that can be checked turn out to be true, you should believe as true also the parts of his or her testimony that cannot be checked"? 

Thus, Hume’s so-called “everlasting check” fails, since a cumulative case can, in principle, be adequate to overcome the intrinsic improbability of a miracle, thereby being sufficient to warrant belief.

It doesn't matter if that is true, "sufficient to warrant belief" does not automatically necessitate "sufficient to condemn unbelief".  And in my brand of skepticism, I don't say belief in Jesus' resurrection is unwarranted.  I say instead that rejecting the resurrection testimony is warranted.  Contrary to popular belief, your personal opinion on when evidence reaches a minimal state of quality/quantity so as to justify trust, does not impose any obligation upon another person to change their evidentiary standards and suddenly start agreeing with you on what evidence seems to be the most convincing. 

Typically, when an atheist states that “extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence”, they have in mind a single spectacular piece of evidence that is sufficient to overcome the intrinsic improbability of the miracle itself. However, what can be accomplished by a single spectacular piece of evidence can, in principle, also be achieved by numerous pieces of less spectacular evidence, perhaps none of which individually is of particularly great weight but collectively is equivalent in weight to a single piece of spectacular evidence.

And what if the identity of the witnesses was equally as disputed among the common people as often as Christian scholars disagree with each other on the identities of the gospel authors?  Or did I inspire you, just now, to write a book entitled "How To Know Whether An Unidentifiable Witness Is Telling the Truth?

Your chosen word "overcome"  falsifies your entire spiel:  you speak as if what one should ultimately do with a given piece of evidence is governed by some established rule of evidence or historiography, meaning you think it can be made clear when a person's choice to disregard some bit of evidence has "violated" any such rule.  Such a rule doesn't exist.  Again, it's why equally educated adult jurors often become deadlocked, and disagree on which evidence should be credited or disregarded.  No, a deadlock does not necessarily mean one of the jurors is being unreasonable.  If you know of any rule that will enable reasonable people to agree on whether to credit or disregard some bit of testimony, why don't you notify the American Court system, so judges can incorporate it into their Rules of Evidence, and you rid the world of deadlocked juries forever?

The Cambridge philosopher Arif Ahmed, himself an outspoken atheist, has sought to meet the challenge of Earman and Babbage to Hume by arguing that the presumption of independence is often false. [9] For example, in the case of a stage illusion or trick, given that at least one person has been fooled, the probability that many other people will be fooled as well is significantly increased. Thus, successive pieces of evidence fail to add significant force to the case that a true miracle was observed. Tim McGrew responds to this point by noting that “The cumulative testimonial evidence might have a theoretical limit to its force, but it might not. Without further information about the specific case in question, we cannot say anything more. Everything depends on the details,” [10]. McGrew further observes concerning the claimed resurrection of Jesus, “The witnesses are not all confined to one vantage point, as they were in the case of the stage magician.

Does that help or hinder the case for Jesus, who often did "miracles" for "large crowds" (i.e., people who were confined to a single vantage point)?

Regardless, the NT often says resurrection witnesses were confined to a single vantage point.  Matthew 28:16-17, Luke 24:31, 37, John 20:20, 26, 30, 21:5, 1st Cor. 15:6. 

If they agree, it is much more difficult to find a single simple explanation for how they could all have been fooled.

Wow, I didn't know that you found it difficult to find a single explanation for how the attendees of a Benny Hinn Crusade could have all been fooled.   The same with large groups being fooled by Peter Popoff and other faith-healers.

Their testimonies are not bare assertions that the event in question happened.

You are assuming it was a plural "they" who gave the testimony we read today.  Not at all.  Generously assuming for the sake of argument the NT provides 20 separate resurrection eyewitness reports, that still leaves 480 others (1st Cor. 15:6) whose testimony we don't have.  Worse, Luke apparently didn't find that any preaching activity of the 82 apostles (12 + 70) was important enough to significantly document the way he does for Paul.  We are going to be reasonable, despite possible trifles otherwise, to conclude that the reason we have nearly nothing from biblical history about the vast majority of the original witnesses is because they didn't do anything indicating they experienced a radical transformation. 

They may include details that interlock with details in other testimonies in ways that increase their credibility.” [11]
The Problem of Defining “Extraordinary”
Tim McGrew has dubbed this slogan that “extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence” the Argumentum Sagani in honor of Carl Sagan [12]. In his presentations on the subject, he parodies the argument as follows (though he notes that this parody is not original with him):

1. Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence.

2. The claim that a miracle has occurred is extraordinary.

Therefore,

3. Any evidence supporting it ought to be extraordinary as well.

4. I am not sure what I mean by “extraordinary.”

5. But whatever you come up with, it’s not going to work.

Therefore,

6. No one is justified in believing any miracle claim.

The problem with the word “extraordinary” here is that it is rarely clearly defined.

Which means the problems for you start when you encounter an intellectually superior atheist who DOES clearly define ECREE.  To fairly and objectively define the "extraordinary" just take the phrase at issue:

Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence

and replace "extraordinary" with its dictionary definition (I use Merrian-Webster), and we get:

Claims which go beyond what is usual, regular, or customary, or are exceptional to a very marked extent, require evidence which goes beyond what is usual, regular, or customary, or else is exceptional to a very marked extent.

Yes, what constitutes "beyond the usual" or "beyond the customary" involves inevitable subjectivity, but that only bolsters the skeptic's case, since the subjectivity, being necessary, cannot possibly be overcome, and presto, we land right back in typical daily reality...where equally educated adults often reach a point where their disagreement on what to do with a piece of evidence, is not governed by any "rule".  Therefore, what the skeptic is doing with the evidence cannot "violate" any such rule, and therefore, any accusation that what the skeptic did with the evidence was "unreasonable" cannot be objectively grounded.  It bears repeating:  You apologists constantly pretend as if a careful application of the rules of historiography would bring to light which assessment of the evidence is "most probable" and which assessment is "less probable", when in fact no historian on the face of the earth will tell you the rules of historiography are capable of resolving disputes between laypeople anymore than such rules are capable of resolving disputes between historians.   

The mantra that I would adopt instead is that all claims require sufficient evidence.  What counts as sufficient evidence will depend upon the relevant prior probability.

Which doesn't mean much since historians, Christians and philosophers disagree with each other constantly on whether some bit of evidence is "sufficient" rendering reasonable the reader who concludes that at the end of the day, such disputes are much ado about nothing, otherwise, the experts would not maintain disagreement for so long.  Lots of smart people know Bayesian probability theory, yet they also disagree with each other about what degree of probability such calculus yields for Jesus' resurrection. 

And, indeed, the only relevance that the fact that a given event is supernatural has epistemically is that it suppresses the prior. However, even prior probabilities that are extremely small (but non-zero) can, in principle, be overcome if adequate evidence is forthcoming.

I can grant that for the sake of argument, but that will never help you, as no such evidence has ever been "adequate", probably because, again, the rules of historiography are not nuanced enough to justify pretending that they can reveal which hypothesis has greater probability, at least not in situations where the evidence is both ancient and ambiguous and sourced in authors of disputed identities.

This failure on the part of atheists to define what they mean by “extraordinary” in this context leads to them setting the bar of evidence so unreasonably high that the burden of proof cannot possibly be met.

So quit playing in the sandbox and get out here in the trenches, where the atheists fairly define ECREE.

What is the problem with the word “extraordinary”?

Nothing, once it is replaced by its dictionary definition. 

If by that word we simply mean an event that is highly improbable or unique, then any event can be defined with sufficient specificity to meet that criteria. For example, consider Joe’s marriage to Sally. Joe being married to someone with the specific traits and characteristics of Sally is enormously improbable — especially when one considers the numerous other couples who had to meet, and the specific sperm cells that had to meet specific egg cells, all the way back to the dawn of humanity, in order for Joe and Sally to both be living at the same time. And yet Joe would be able to offer sufficient evidence that he is in fact married to Sally – adequate evidence to overcome a low prior probability.

That's nothing new.  I already admit that ECREE includes subjective elements.  One them is the point at which a person "should" classify a claim as "extraordinary".  Your problem is not with the atheist but with ECREE being a mere rule of thumb and thus offering something less than absolute certainty. 

Is the fact that Joe married Sally an extraordinary event? Well, it depends on what you mean by “extraordinary.”

Exactly.  I don't find two particular people getting married to each other to be "extraordinary" because under that logic, every interaction of persons and objects would qualify as extraordinary, and if we are to have a sensible disussion, we have to come to terms on what kinds of events are non-extraordinary.

The point I am trying to make here is that you cannot simply define an extraordinary event as an occurrence that is highly improbable or unique (i.e. that it is something that lies outside of what normally happens), since that takes us into the realm where we can show that lots of events are very improbable or unique, if they are defined with enough specificity.

That's not a flaw in ECREE, that merely ECREE's unavoidable subjectivity.

Instead, the argument here is going to need to be more sophisticated. So, let me try to steel man the atheist’s argument and formalize why we tend to treat the resurrection differently from how we would treat the case of Joe marrying Sally.

Your geekiness is blinding me.  We treat Jesus resurrection differently from daily marriages for the same reason we treat alien abduction stories differently from claims about heavy traffic.

Why Do We Treat a Miracle Claim as Different from a Mundane Claim?
Why, then, do we treat a miracle claim, like “Jesus rose from the dead”, differently from how we might treat a more mundane claim, like “Joe married Sally”?

Because we rightly fear that if we start believing Jesus rose from the dead, we may end up in a "cult" promoting "heresy", and we are aware that the bible-god strongly condemns heretics.  Once again, unles  you claim those parts of the bible are "just kidding" you cannot blame an unbeliever for taking exteme measures to make sure she doesn't make her eternal resting place more miserable than it needs to be.  One such measure is consistent with the NT;  not letting anybody teach her anything about the NT except the Christian teacher who possesses the same level of infallibility as the original apostles allegedly did after Acts 2.  Sure, you will balk because you know you cannot satisfy that high standard.  But inability to meet the standard doesn't mean the standard is too high.  It may just as easily imply that your evidence is insufficient to demonstrate which viewpoint is most reasonable. 

Clearly, it is not that the former is more improbable than the latter, or that the former is a very unique or an unprecedented event, since mundane claims, like “Joe married Sally”, can be defined with enough specificity to make them highly improbable, unique and unprecedented events as well. Obviously, the very same problem would be encountered if Joe had married any other woman, and so this consideration may be ‘cancelled out’. This is equally true of a lottery. The lottery being won by any given individual is extremely improbable. But since this is equally true of all participants in the lottery, we can ‘cancel’ that consideration. On the other hand, suppose that someone wins the lottery who happens to be the spouse or son or a close friend of the person running the lottery. In that case, we get more suspicious because that can be thought of as more probable on an alternative hypothesis than that of chance coincidence. Notice here that we do not get suspicious simply because something extremely improbable has happened — because this individual winning the lottery is no more improbable than any other individual selected at random winning it. Rather, we get suspicious because we consider that this particular individual winning the lottery is more expected (more probable) if something suspicious has happened than it is on the hypothesis of chance.

What you carefully avoided saying was "we get suspicious because for a relative of a Lottery-office worker to win the Lottery increases the likelihood that there was collusion."  But you didn't want to say that because you think Matthew and John were close with Jesus, and your logic could then be used by a skeptic to justify the theory that these close associates, like Benny Hinn and his body guards, agreed to deceive others.  

This is a good parallel for how the skeptic thinks about a miracle report such as the claim that Jesus was raised from the dead.

No it isn't.  We can easily verify that others have won lotteries.  We have never verified that anybody ever rose from the dead.  The problem of improbability in jesus rising from the dead is orders of magnitude larger than the problem of improbability of somebody somewhere winning a lottery.

Just like the hypothesis of fraud picks out the lottery example for special suspicion, so in this case, the skeptic argues, the hypothesis of hallucination or deceit picks out the resurrection reports for special suspicion.

Put me down for "vision later embellished into physical sightings of a bodily risen Jesus". 

But note that this is not based on a purely inductive approach that argues that the event of the resurrection or of the suspicious lottery win is improbable by itself (because of the problem I raised above). Instead, the argument ought to be something to the effect that in the past we have found such claims to be more explicable by way of alternative hypotheses, so most likely this one is too. This then moves us into a discussion of alternative explanations of the evidence under consideration and whether those explanations are reasonable.

Correct, except that by the word "moves" you fallaciously assume that upon arriving at that point, the skeptic is under some type of compulsion to provide the alternative theory or admit unreasonableness.  He isn't.  I can be reasonable to deny the hypothesis that space aliens created the Bermuda Triangle, even if I don't know how to explain the allegation that ships and planes disappear in that area than in any other.

Further Problems With Inductive Assessments of the Prior Probability of Miracles
Another point that is worth bearing in mind is that it, if the prior probability of miraculous events is judged in purely inductive terms, Christians and skeptics are likely going to disagree about the priors anyway. The atheist presumably would take every miraculous report from the Old and New Testaments as another example of a failed miracle report, adding it to his case against miracles, whereas the Christian beliefs that those miracles in fact took place. Thus, simply putting the resurrection into the reference class of “alleged miracles” and then asking for a purely inductive prior probability of its occurrence is quite unhelpful. In fact, the atheist’s attribution of those miracle accounts to naturalistic causes is itself in significant measure a consequence of his non-empirical metaphysical judgments.

Should I believe god is protecting me, while I write this, from going to hell?  If not, what would God rather have me do, and does the NT support the modern Christian desire to engage in scholarly questions of sources and methodology?  Or are you slightly worreid that the detailed trifling detailed way modern day apologists obey Jude 3 was never intended by the NT authors?  When you read the NT, do you come away with the feeling that God wants unbelievers to purchase apologetics books and comprehensively examine the arguments therein?  No, you don't.

It is hardly as though there are millions upon millions of other cases where a miracle was reported and the skeptic, having thoroughly investigated each claim, has found compelling empirical evidence for their falsity. This is why the appeal of David Hume to the uniform testimony of mankind against miracles is wrong-headed.

It's also wrongheaded to go chasing after a miracle-claim that has a demonstrable history of enticing the investigators into adopting a heretical form of Christianity. 

Indeed, there are many miracle reports in existence. Craig Keener has documented many examples in his two volume set on miracles [13].

He has also refused my challenge to give me the evidence for the one he thinks most impervious to falsification. 

Thus, as far as that is concerned, Hume is simply wrong. Human experience is not at all uniform on this matter.

Now YOU are making the same mistake.  You don't know that human experience "is not at all uniform on this matter".  All you know is that many people claim miracle-experiences.  Which of them are being truthful, deceptive or mistaken, you really can't say. 

And you neglect to mention the benefits of miracle apathy:  how many Christian churches, which you think are "heretical", did an unbeliever safely steer clear of, by not caring about Jesus' resurrection?  Is it morally good or morally bad when an unbeliever refuses to attend a heretical church?

You will likely respond "but look at the benefits the unbeliever lost by being disinterested in miracles!"

Unfortunately for you, you will never be demonstrating that theological benefits, because the Christian churches disagree with each other on what the relevant NT passages mean.  The only "benefit" to miracle-investigation is you might end up adopting certain beliefs that open the door for for you to join some church, which in this world is a source of social stability.  

In fact, Hume’s whole argument here is circular, since in order to argue that the uniform experience of man precludes miraculous events, he has to dismiss the numerous reports of such miracles as false – the very point he is endeavoring to establish.

No, he only has to show that his belief that they are false, is reasonable.  He doesn't have to show that they are actually false.  No historian would say that claims based on nothing but testimony can be positively falsified by outsiders.  When we assert some miracle claim is false, that's a probability judgment, not an absolute claim.

In the case of the resurrection of Jesus, what is the relevant background information, which will inform our assessment of the prior probability?

How many times have you seen the tooth-fairy leave money under somebody's pillow?  If never, does that establish a prior probability?

We have strong independent reason to think God exists

No, the strongest rebuttals to theism are a) the arguments that god-talk is ultimately meaningless, b) godtalk is essentially ad hoc by necessity, and c) there is no "rule" requiring people to "care" about higher authorities who have a consistent track record of refusing to respond to their most devoted followers.

and that He sometimes performs miracles.

So provide me all the evidence in favor of the one miracle you think most clearly resists all purely naturalistic interpretations, and lets get started.

However, God doesn’t appear to perform those miracles particularly frequently, so they do fall into a reference class that is rather special on the basis of considerations such as God’s wanting to reserve them for special occasions so that they can be recognized as a sign against the background of a regular natural order.

And here you completely forget that your bible says god may sometimes do a real miracle at the hands of a false prophet merely to "test Israel".  Does Deuteronomy 13 "apply to us today"?  what dispensationalism materials does god want me to study, and how long will he expect me to study before he expects me to correctly discern which camp is right about how the OT "applies to us today"?  If you don't know, you forfeit the right to balk if I answer that question for myself in a way you don't like.  If then I decide God will give me 25 years to study that convoluted mess of theological nothingness call "dispensationalism", you are deprived of any justification for screaming "behold now is the day of salvation!". I can thus justify rejecting the gospel for the next 25 years.  

However, this implies a much higher prior than the prior assigned by the skeptic, even before we factor in other considerations that could raise the prior probability in Jesus’ particular case. It is to these other considerations that I now turn.
The Relevance of Religio-Historical Context to Estimating the Prior
For the reasons expressed above, I think that a purely inductive or frequentist approach to estimating the prior probability of the resurrection of Jesus is mistaken.

Why? What "rule" does the frequentist violate?   

The prior probability, I would suggest, can instead be raised by (a) pointing to the independent evidence from natural theology that God exists (if there is independent demonstration that there is a God who could perform the miracle, then this increases the prior probability of Him actually performing a miracle at least somewhat);

Fat chance.  godtalk is meaingless and is the most extreme example of the ad hoc fallacy.

and (b) fleshing out, to borrow a phrase from William Lane Craig, the religio-historical context of the resurrection.

So in the religio-historical context of modern Roman Catholic miracles, the miracles operate as they did for Jesus in the first-century:  They do not merely prove the supernatural realm exists, they also "confirm the message".  You will balk like crazy because you know you'll lose hard if you simply agree that genuinely supernatural miracles among Catholics today is divine conformation that their theology is approved by God.  But from a purely objective standpoint, I don't think you can convincingly argue that God intends modern-day miracles to do anything less than what you think 1st century miracles were supposed to do:  "confirm the message".

By elaborating this religio-historical context, one can show that God plausibly might have motivation for raising Jesus of Nazareth specifically from the dead.

But Jesus' family didn't think his miracles were real (Mark 3:21, 6:1-4, John 7:5), which argues that the miracles likely weren't real, which suggests God would not raise Jesus from the dead, because God would not want to premise His second covenant upon the words and works of somebody incapable of doing miracles. 

William Lane Craig notes, “A miracle without a context is inherently ambiguous.

That doesn't mean God wouldn't do a miracle outside of a context.  Maybe god operates in a way that creates intolerable ambiguities for Christian apologists. 

But if a purported miracle occurs in a significant religio-historical context, then the chances of its being a genuine miracle are increased.

But only if you assume God is the sort of God who cares about establishing a religio-historical context.

And under your reasoning as adopted from W.L.Craig, supra, the medieval Christian miracle stories are flooded with religio-historical context, therefore the chances of those being genuine miracles are increased.  So, Mr. McLatchie, how many medieval Christian miracle stories do you believe are true? 

For example, if the miracles occur at a momentous time (say, a man’s leprosy vanishing when Jesus speaks the words, ‘Be clean!’) and do not recur regularly in history, and if the miracles are numerous and various, then the chances of their being the result of some unknown natural causes are reduced. In Jesus’ case, moreover, his miracles and resurrection ostensibly took place in the context of and as the climax to his own unparalleled life and teachings and produced so profound an effect on his followers that they worshiped him as Lord.” [14]

Now you are preaching to the choir with your presupposition that such gospel details are true, when in fact there are objective justifications to hold that the gospels at best are mere legends and embellishments around several nuggets of historical truth.  If in this article I don't supply examples, it is because the greater purpose is to provide point-to-point rebuttal.  How much or how little I "should" support my own claims in this context is nobody's preorgative but mine.  Otherwise, I'd have to write 90,000 pages of detail to make sure I satisfy all internet fuckups who think god imparted to them the spiritual gift of nitpicking.

How can this religio-historical context be elaborated in an objective way?

You will never show that unbelievers ever "should" care. 

I would point here to instances in the gospels of what I call Messianic convergence. That is, instances in the gospel accounts where an episode in Jesus’ life intersects in some striking way with the Old Testament Scriptures but which also enjoys strong historical support. This is best explained by giving examples, so I will give a few here.
The evidence is compelling that Jesus died on the Day of Passover, the 15th of Nisan. I won’t get into the details here of how we know the gospels are historically reliable on this detail, since I only wish to illustrate the principle. Given the theological theme in the New Testament of Jesus being the fulfillment of the Passover lamb (e.g. 1 Cor 5:7), this is quite striking. This is not by any means a conclusive proof that Christianity is true, but that striking correspondence does seem to be somewhat more probable on the hypothesis that Christianity is true than on the falsehood of that hypothesis, and may therefore be counted as evidence (not proof) that Jesus is indeed the Messiah. I suggest that a Bayes factor of 10 (meaning it is 10 times more likely on the hypothesis of Christianity than on its falsehood), though admittedly somewhat subjective, is a fairly conservative estimate.

But you don't know whether the gospels are reportng the date of Jesus' death accurately, and other Christian apologists like Mike Licona are apparently convinced that the gospel authors felt free to narrate facts in a manner other than as they actually happened.  Sorry, but if it be reasonable to date the gospels roughly around 70 a.d., that gives their authors 35 years to contemplate the theological implications of Jesus' death, and the temptation to portray Jesus falsely as if he knew he was supposed to die, must have been irresistible for gospel authors who think Jesus is this wonderfully exalted being.

This argument may be developed as a cumulative case. In previous articles (e.g. here), I have discussed the undesigned coincidence that corroborates John’s statement that Jesus entered Jerusalem five days before Passover, on the week leading up to His death, which would correspond to the 10th day of the month of Nisan (Jn 12:12).

Why would it matter if it was a historical fact? Even assuming Christianity is true, that does nothing to smooth over the real world experience of many Christians that God seems to be so apathetic that they have trouble distinguishing him from a non-existent god.  An intelligent mammal is always stupid to just keep pestering some  higher-order being after it becomes clear that the higher-order being is either not home, or is not interested.  Yes, there comes a point when "God's delays are not God's denials" has worn too thin and has lost its force.  But to answer more directly, a skeptic could be just as reasonable as you, to explain this as Jesus recognizing at some point he would be executed, and so he engaged in actions that he thought consistent with his interpretation of OT passages he viewed as messianic.  Then the gospel authors came along later and realized the benefit of subtlety:  stories that have Jesus exactly mirroring messianic expectations would appear equally as transparently fabricated as stories about how the child Jesus manifested both childish and divine traits, but stories that have Jesus "fulfilling" some messianic expectation more indirectly would be slightly more believable.  And let's not forget that Jesus was also a mystic, which explains why there is so much fortune cookie bullshit to gospel theology.

It turns out that the instructions given in Exodus 12 regarding the Passover stipulated that on the 10th of Nisan the Jews were to select their Passover lamb and bring it into their homes (verse 3). Isn’t it striking, then, that Jesus’ death on the Day of Passover just so happened to be the same year that Jesus entered Jerusalem on the 10th day of Nisan?

No, the gospel authors are simply employing fiction to do what they do best, and make Jesus appear to be a fulfillment of several OT themes.

Now, we need to be careful here since it may be pointed out that this coincidence is not wholly independent of the previous one, since Jesus coming into Jerusalem on Nisan 10 would not matter at all if it weren’t for the fact that he then died subsequently at least around that time. If we take his entry into Jerusalem on Nisan 10 to be significant, we must be assuming that he died right around that time, which means that that one entails the other. The question we can ask, however, is how much additional evidence it provides that Jesus also entered Jerusalem on Nisan 10. Another factor for us to consider is that Passover is a particularly likely time for a Jew to enter Jerusalem and also a time when he could count on ministering to a large crowd of people who had made their pilgrimage to Judea for the feast. Even with a Bayes Factor of 2 (meaning that it is twice as likely on the hypothesis than on its falsehood), however, the overall cumulative Bayes factor doubles.

But in the real world 'god' appears absolutely uninterested in us.  That is going to justify unbelievers to remain unbelievers, even if you can find 10 ancient authors to corroborate Jesus dying on Nisan 10.

Another example is the fact that Jesus was born in Bethlehem, fulfilling the Old Testament prophecy of Micah 5:2. I realize that this proposition is controversial. However, I will not argue the case (which I think can be made strongly) for Jesus being born in Bethlehem in this article. Here, I only intend to show how in principle such evidences can be relevant to the prior probability of Jesus’ resurrection. To be conservative, I will assign a Bayes factor for Jesus’ birth in Bethlehem to 1000. This is a generous Bayes factor, since clearly much, much less than 1 out of every 1000 individuals that have been born since the time of Micah has been born in Bethlehem, and the probability of Jesus in fact being born in Bethlehem, on the hypothesis that He is indeed the Messiah (based on the prophecy of Micah 5:2), is very high (approaching 1).

You are correct to say it is controversial.  Jesus never became a ruler, whic means you run back to your ad hoc fallacies, deny the plain meaning of "ruler in Israel", and assign it a mystical or "secondary" meaning to avoid admitting that Jesus didn't fulfill Micah 5:2.

Another example is the fact that Christianity became the dominant international religion that it became.

Which would never have happened without Constantine making Christianity the official Roman Empire religion, and in the process criminalizing the pagan religions. 

The Old Testament predicted that the Messiah would be the light to the gentiles, that God’s salvation might reach to the ends of the world (Isaiah 42:6; 49:6). Jesus Himself, during His ministry, said, “And this gospel of the kingdom will be proclaimed throughout the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come,” (Mt 24:14).

I take that to be Matthew putting phrases in Jesus' mouth which Jesus never said.  That hypothesis does not break any "rule", except perhaps the "rule" of bible inerrancy. 

This entails that it is quite probable that, on the hypothesis that Jesus really is the Messiah, Christianity would bring people of all nations to a recognition of the God of Israel. However, this seems to be really quite improbable on the falsehood of that hypothesis. Until 313 A.D. (when the Edict of Milan, under the Emperor Constantine, guaranteed religious freedom and made Christianity legal), Christians endured intense persecution under multiple Roman Emperors.

Not really.  If the NT is reliable, the Romans would have known that what Christians believe has more to do with the hope of the hopeless and less to do with any serious threat to Rome. 

Under the circumstances, the odds of Christianity prevailing and becoming an international religion seemed vanishingly small, and yet it did.

No it didn't.  No version of Christianity today represents the version Jesus taught in Matthew.  With few exceptions, all of modern Christianity espouses Paul, and for that reason, do not constitute Christianity.

Again, then, we have a significantly top-heavy likelihood ratio where Christianity’s spread across the world is much, much more expected on the hypothesis of its truth than on its falsehood. I suggest that a Bayes Factor of 1000 is reasonable for this one.

All you need to account for Christianity's spread is a death-cult that aggressively seeks proselytes between the 1st and 4th centuries when joining a new cult came with the obvious benefits of humanitarian aid to those in need.

If my assigned estimated Bayes Factors for the above four examples are reasonable, then our cumulative Bayes Factor is already 20,000,000 (meaning, our evidence is 20 million times more likely if Jesus is the Messiah than if He isn’t). There is admittedly a certain degree of subjectivity involved in assigning those Bayes factors, but I have tried to be reasonable and conservative, and I am only attempting to show how the argument may be probabilistically modeled given certain sets of assumptions. Those were only four examples, and there are many more that I could provide. Cumulatively, I would argue, this sort of evidence leads one to think that God may plausibly have motivation for raising Jesus of Nazareth specifically from the dead as God’s vindication of Jesus’ claims, message, and teaching (certainly more so than if He were some obscure miscellaneous Joe Blow). This argument can be developed still further (for more examples, see my earlier article here).

If Jesus' miracles vindicated his message, why are you so slow to conclude that the miracles done in Roman Catholicism vindicate Catholic theology?  Does the bible say that miracles in the latter days will have a different purpose than they had for Jesus?

Another consideration here is that the Old Testament predicts that the Messiah would be raised from the dead (Isa 53:10),

Which view cannot be documented from anything in pre-Christian Judaism.   

and Jesus Himself claimed numerous times that His resurrection from the dead would be God’s vindication of His radical Messianic claims. For example, there is strong historical support for the veracity of Jesus’ statement in John 2:19 that He would “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up” (speaking of His body), though again I will not get into the details of the supporting evidence here.

It doesn't matter if Jesus said it.  his audience thought he was talking about the Temple building (v. 20).  Then the author cuts in and insists that Jesus was speaking about the "temple" of his body (v. 21).  The author is doing what most Christian scholars think John is doing:  he is putting new spins on the words of the historical Christ to make it seem like Jesus spoke in some type of code that only the enlightened few could recognize. 

Since that is itself a prediction that He would be raised from the dead,

No, it is John taking a statement Jesus made about the Temple building and falsely reinterpreting it. 

it may be taken as historical that Jesus really did predict ahead of time not only His impending violent death, but also His resurrection. This and other predictions of Jesus’ resurrection in the gospels can also be historically confirmed to be authentic, but we need not get into the details here.

it wouldn't matter if you did, nothing in the bible can get rid of the sad reality that even for many sincere Christians, god's "hiddenness" of silence is intolerably consistent and leaves them unable to distinguish a dead god from a living god who avoid interacting with his followers.

If Jesus really did predict ahead of time not only His impending violent death but also His resurrection from the dead, this also gives us reason to suspect that God may plausibly have motivation for raising Jesus of Nazareth specifically from the dead.

And it also doesn't matter, since the "god" you are trying to get people to serve, has a very bad real-world track record of giving any appearance that he gives a shit what happens.


Overcoming the Subjectivity of Prior Assignment
One may challenge the appropriateness of a Bayesian approach to miracles on the basis that the assignment of the prior probability of a miraculous event is quite subjective.

That's right.  Christian scholars disagree on the degree to which any resurrection testimony in the NT comes from eyewitnesses.  Alleged eyewitness Matthew's use of Mark is reasonably viewed as reducing the likelihood that Matthew was an eyewitness, even if you can trifle that any eyewitness may possibly find a non-eyewitness's version more preferable to his own.  it isn't like the debate must be concluded as soon as you have invented a possible trifle that keeps your faith from being 100% irrational.  Whether skepticism toward Jesus can be reasonable arises from grounds independent of whether your trust in Jesus can be reasonable.  Again, it is not true that in every disagreement, at least one person has to be unreasonable. 

However, this obstacle can be overcome by back-solving for how low of a prior the pertinent evidence could overcome. For example, in their chapter in the Blackwell Companion to Natural Theology, Tim and Lydia McGrew argue for a Bayes factor of the evidence pertaining to the resurrection of 1044, “a weight of evidence that would be sufficient to overcome a prior probability (or rather improbability) of 10-40 for R and leave us with a posterior probability in excess of 0.9999.” [15]

Will God protect me from going to hell while I check out the McGrew's calculations?  Or should I scrap the effort at better understanding and "get saved" ASAP because I never know when I will die and seal my fate for eternity? 

Likewise, I have similarly argued in a previous article that the cumulative Bayes factor of the evidence for God’s existence, on the most charitable of assumptions, is sufficient to overcome a prior probability of 10-18 and still yield posterior odds of God’s existence of 0.9999.

And again, the real world teaches us that God has no interest in communicating with his sincere followers, and yet you continue fallaciously assuming that if god "exists", all refusal to serve him becomes irrational and unreasonable. Not so.

Thus, one can calculate how small a prior would need to be in order to overcome the positive evidence for a hypothesis. Even if we do not know precisely what the prior is, if we are reasonably confident that the prior is higher than that value, then a more precise estimate of the prior becomes less important.
Conclusion
To conclude, while the dictum that “extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence” may have rhetorical appeal, a closer inspection reveals that it is fraught with oft-overlooked problems.

No, the s tupid version of ECREE as espoused by lazy atheists, is fraught with oft-overlooked problems.  The objective and fair version of ECREE does not have those problems and still shows the reasonableness of those who reject miracle claims where the evidence hasn't passed the highest authentication standards. 

Sagan’s dictum has regrettably often been used to shut down inquiry and discourse rather than foster it and encourage an open-minded and careful investigation of the public evidence bearing on resurrection of Jesus of Nazareth.

And you'll never know how many times an atheist saved herself from a life of Mormonism by shutting down an apologetics conversation with a Protestant. 

My hope and prayer is that this article clears the way for more productive dialogue between Christians and skeptics on the epistemology of testimony and the provability of miracles.

That doesn't seem to be sincere.  I robustly challenged you a few years ago, and you signaled your fear of losing any such debate by pretending that because I had sued several people in the past, you were choosing to avoid the debate.  FUCK YOU. 

My reply to Bellator Christi's "Three Dangerous Forms of Modern Idolatry"

I received this in my email, but the page it was hosted on appears to have been removed  =====================  Bellator Christi Read on blo...