Showing posts with label virgin birth. Show all posts
Showing posts with label virgin birth. Show all posts

Thursday, December 7, 2017

Demolishing Triablogue: The virgin birth story is fiction whether it was a cover story or not

This is my reply to an article by Steve Hays entitled

Hostile readers assume the account of the virgin birth is a cover story for a prenuptial scandal.
Some of them think it is rank fiction not intended to be a cover story.
That makes sense if you reject miracles out of hand, as well as the larger context of Christ's extraordinary life and ministry.
However, even on naturalistic grounds, why would Mary or early Christian propagandists concoct a story like that?
Maybe because the Jesus whom they wished to worship, really was born in circumstances not becoming a holy "son of God"?
To begin with, no one except Christians is going to believe it. So it will fail to silence suspicion and allegation. The very audience that assumed the worst in the first place will hardly be persuaded by this explanation. 
But you don't know the originally intended audience of the gospel authors sufficiently to justify dogmatizing about whether Matthew and Luke expected their virgin birth narratives to be convincing to unbelievers.  The gospels appear more likely written for believers, and less likely intended to convince unbelievers.   And yet in light of John 20:31, it could be argued that the gospel authors really did, in gullible fashion, expect unbelievers to trust whatever they had to say about Jesus.  Not any more unlikely than the con artists at TBN who "expect" to wow unbelievers with their gossip about Jesus.  It's really stupid, but people sometimes really are THAT stupid.
In addition, it's not even the most plausible naturalistic explanation.
Correct, the silence of Mark and 24 other NT authors on the virgin birth makes it clear that the virgin birth story is more than likely fiction, even if there was no sexual scandal to cover up.
The Mosaic law has a loophole for rape victims. If a virgin says she was raped when she was out in the field, she can't be prosecuted since there were no witnesses to confirm whether it was consensual or not (Deut 22:25-27).
Despite the fact that had God wanted to, he could have given some miraculous sign to the judges so they could determine whether her version of the story was truthful or not, like he allegedly does in causing a dishonest woman's vagina to get gooey and disgusting in Numbers 5.  
But that would make it harder to enforce the law on adultery, since even if a betrothed virgin (or married woman) became pregnant through consensual sex, she would always claim rape. Say she wasn't within earshot of any witnesses at the time.
Assuming, for the sake of argument, that Mary was pregnant because she had consensual premarital sex, why make up a story about angelic visitations and a miraculous conception when she could simply say she was a rape victim? 
Easy, she wasn't raped, she was a teen slut.  Problem solved.

Don't forget that the virgin birth story clealry does more than cover up some sex scandal, it also promotes Jesus as the divine son of God, so that could be the sole motive of the authors, a cover-up being utterly irrelevant to their motives.

Another answer is that perhaps there's no report of rape because the evidence of her consent was clear to those who investigated?  I.e., the story is covering up Mary's slutty history?
Rape was probably not uncommon back then. So unlike the virgin birth, there'd be no air of unreality to the claim. People who scoffed at the virgin birth wouldn't be in a position to scoff at that explanation.
Given how easy it would be to invoke this loophole, it stands to reason that some women who were guilty of consensual premarital or extramarital sex evaded the allegation by claiming to be rape victims. So long as they weren't caught in the act, there'd be no presumption that their claim was false. 
And since we cannot know to what degree others knew the truth about how Mary got pregnant, your questions do little more than beg for speculative answers.  I'd rather you answer the problem of Mark not mentioning a virgin birth.  I think this is where you suddenly discover that Markan priority is just a trick of the devil, and Mark was simply abbreviating Matthew and Luke.
Yet Mary doesn't say that.
You don't know what Mary herself had to say about this incident.  You have the disputed hearsay of gospel authors whose identity and exact relation to the eyewitnesses or to these events is nearly a complete unknown, yet you act like the reasons they wrote they way they did are perfectly clear.
Matthew and Luke don't represent Mary having said that. 
 And since first-century Christians never lied about anything, atheists have no other choice but to worship bible inerrancy.
If you're going to invent or circulate a cover story, that would be far more plausible to hostile readers than the virgin birth.
But we don't know that the gospel authors were intending to make a cover story, so all you are doing is refuting extreme skeptics who irrationally insist that Mary was raped or a slut.  Let me know when you have something to say threatening MY basis for virgin-birth skepticism.

And if you want Jesus to sound like pre-Christian god-men like Perseus, you invent a tale of virgin birth that puts words in the mouth of his mother, then you kick out of your church anybody and everybody who take issue with what God's annointed apostle Matthew said.
So why didn't Mary, Matthew, and Luke resort to that explanation rather than the virgin birth? For the obvious reason that the tradition of the virgin birth was the true explanation, even though it will invite derision in a way that feigning rape would not. 
Bullshit, the virgin birth story could be covering up Mary's consensual adultery, and THAT could just as easily explain why the rape-hypothesis doesn't make sense of the data.  Leaping from the falsity of the rape-hypothesis to the conclusion that the virgin birth is true, is hasty generalization and the fallacy of false dilemma.

The falsity of the virgin birth is as secure from the silence of Mark and 24 other NT authors as an historical hypothesis could possibly be.  Engwer's trifles about Mark 6:3 cannot explain how Mark could have "chosen to exclude" a story that would have supported his doctrinal beliefs the most, the virgin birth.  The truth is that Mark is silent about the virgin birth because either a) he doesn't know about it, implying Peter doesn't either, implying the story was false, or b) he knew the story but thought it false.

Now go commit a sin and blame it on God like a good Calvinist.

Monday, July 31, 2017

Demolishing Triablogue, part 5: The Virgin Birth and Mark 6:3

Jason Engwer argues that the failure to mention Joseph as Jesus father in Mark 6:3 is more consistent with the theory that there was something peculiar about Jesus' birth, than with any other theory.
NAU  Mark 6:1 Jesus went out from there and came into His hometown; and His disciples followed Him.
 2 When the Sabbath came, He began to teach in the synagogue; and the many listeners were astonished, saying, "Where did this man get these things, and what is this wisdom given to Him, and such miracles as these performed by His hands?
 3 "Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, and brother of James and Joses and Judas and Simon? Are not His sisters here with us?" And they took offense at Him.
 4 Jesus said to them, "A prophet is not without honor except in his hometown and among his own relatives and in his own household."
 5 And He could do no miracle there except that He laid His hands on a few sick people and healed them. (Mk. 6:1-5 NAU)
Engwer's biggest oversight is Mark's failure to say anything explicit about the virgin birth, if indeed Mark says what he does in 6:3 because of a scandal that ultimately arises from Jesus being born of a virgin.

Engwer will say Mark didn't feel the need to repeat what his originally intended audience already believed or accepted, but on the contrary, early patristic testimony asserted that Mark's purpose was no less than to repeat for his church, at their request, what they heard Peter preach.  From Eusebius, H.E. 6:14, Schaff edition:
Again, in the same books, Clement gives the tradition of the earliest presbyters, as to the order of the Gospels, in the following manner: The Gospels containing the genealogies, he says, were written first. The Gospel according to Marks had this occasion. As Peter had preached the Word publicly at Rome, and declared the Gospel by the Spirit, many who were present requested that Mark, who had followed him for a long time and remembered his sayings, should write them out. And having composed the Gospel he gave it to those who had requested it.
So Engwer cannot explain Mark's failure to explicitly mention the virgin birth on the theory that Mark trusted that his readers already accepted this doctrine.  Because they were already converts and a church, they clearly had accepted all major teachings Peter gave them, yet Mark is precisely repeating for them in written form that which they previously heard and believed.  So Engwer's presumption that the author of Mark either knew about or accepted the virgin birth story, but for some mysterious reason never quite got around to mentioning it, is quite strange:  The virgin birth, if true, would certainly strongly support, at least for Christians, their belief that Jesus was the promised messiah.  Yet Engwer would have the reader believe that Mark never thought such a strong supporting bit of history/doctrine worthy to be explicitly mentioned?

Engwer wastes his readers time arguing for such a trifling thing, because Jesus, when presented with an opportunity to say something good about his mom or his birth, declined to do so:
27 While Jesus was saying these things, one of the women in the crowd raised her voice and said to Him, "Blessed is the womb that bore You and the breasts at which You nursed."
 28 But He said, "On the contrary (Greek: men), blessed are those who hear the word of God and observe it." (Lk. 11:27-28 NAU)
Louw-Nida indicate that in the Greek, "contrary" signaled disagreement with the former speaker:
89.128  μενοῦν ; μενοῦνγε: relatively emphatic markers of contrast - 'but, on the contrary, on the other hand.' μενοῦν: μενοῦν μακάριοι οἱ ἀκούοντες τὸν λόγον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ φυλάσσοντες 'on the contrary, those who hear the word of God and keep it are happy' or '... fortunate' Lk 11.28. For other interpretations of μενοῦν in Lk 11.28 , see 89.50 and 91.8. μενοῦνγε: μενοῦνγε σὺ τίς εἶ ὁ ἀνταποκρινόμενος τῷ θεῷ 'on the contrary, who are you to talk back to God?' Ro 9.20.
So Jesus was not simply reminding people of the higher priorities, he was disagreeing with the female speaker's assumption that the blessedness of his mother had any relevance to anything concerning the gospel.

Oh, did I mention?  Jesus also never brought up the subject of his birth.

I answer Engwer in point by point fashion here, since he or somebody at Triablogue is apparently too frightened of my scholarly answers to them and have banned me, while dishonestly leaving up their replies to me. 
Thursday, December 05, 2013
Posted by Jason Engwer at 5:31 AM
Jesus' Childhood Outside The Infancy Narratives (Part 5): Mark
Mark's gospel, like Matthew and Luke, has John anticipating Jesus' ministry before it begins (1:2-8).

As in the other gospels, Mark has John popularly received early on (1:5). See my comments earlier about the significance of John's reception.

Mark's accounts of the calling of the disciples (e.g., 1:16-20) are similar to what we find in Matthew. See my earlier comments in my post about Matthew's gospel.

The infancy theme of Jesus' background in Nazareth is mentioned by Mark (1:24).
Mark 1:24 neither expresses nor implies the least little bit about Jesus' infancy, it merely indicates that somebody believed Jesus to have been from Nazarteth, whether he was actually born there is hardly at issue:
 23 Just then there was a man in their synagogue with an unclean spirit; and he cried out,
 24 saying, "What business do we have with each other, Jesus of Nazareth? Have You come to destroy us? I know who You are-- the Holy One of God!"
 25 And Jesus rebuked him, saying, "Be quiet, and come out of him!" (Mk. 1:23-25 NAU)
 Conservative Inerrantist Evangelical scholar J.A. Brooks says absolutely nothing about Jesus' infancy in his commentary on Mark 1:24:
1:24 The questions sought to put Jesus on the defensive and force him to justify his action (cf. Judg 11:12; 2 Sam 16:10; 1 Kgs 17:18; 2 Kgs 3:13; 2 Chr 35:21). The second sentence, however, could be an assertion rather than a question: “You have come to destroy us!” The demon tried unsuccessfully to oppose Jesus by employing his name. Note how the demon spoke through the man, sometimes for himself and sometimes for demons in general. “Holy One of God” probably is a messianic title, although there is very little attestation for that. In the Old Testament God is usually the Holy One. Here the title implies that Jesus has a special relationship with God. In v. 24 the demon acknowledged the true identity of Jesus (cf. v. 34)—something the disciples were slow to do. In fact, only at the crucifixion did a human being confess Jesus as the Son of God, and he was not one of the disciples (15:39).
Brooks, J. A. (2001, c1991). Vol. 23: Mark (electronic e.). Logos Library System;
The New American Commentary (Page 51). Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.
 Asserting that the demon spoke the true identity of Jesus, does not constitute evidence either way on Jesus' infancy.  And it doesn't matter if the reference shows somebody thought Jesus was "born" there, Jason's purpose in the article is not to establish that Jesus was born in Nazareth, but that Jesus was virgin-born.  Nothing in Mark 1:24 supports any concept of virgin birth.

Other Christian scholars see nothing about Jesus infancy in this passage:
“The Holy One of God” (ὁ ἃγιος τοῦ Θεοῦ). The demon addresses Jesus as “Jesus, the Nazarene.” After asking about the purpose of Jesus’ coming, the spirit then demonstrates his knowledge of Jesus’ true identity, “The Holy One of God.”
Guelich, R. A. (2002). Vol. 34A: Word Biblical Commentary : Mark 1-8:26.
Word Biblical Commentary (Page 57). Dallas: Word, Incorporated.
 Engwer continues:
The theme of Davidic ancestry is present as well (10:47-48, 11:10, 12:35-37). Again, keep in mind the implication of a Bethlehem birthplace.
Even granting Jesus was born in Bethlehem, this does nothing to speak to his being born of a virgin.  Do you  believe Josephus when he says a cow gave birth to a lamb, merely because he correctly mentions Jerusalem and the Temple?  Probably not.
And a high estimate of Jesus' character, with its implications for Jesus' childhood, is present in Mark (1:24), as in the other gospels.
Correction, the story has a story character that gave a high estimate of Jesus.  Trying to establish the historicity of such high estimate by blindly buh-leeving the account is about as stupid as arguing that Donald Trump is a good politician because one of his enemies once said something good about him.

The belief of Jesus' own family that he was crazy, and their refusal to believe his miraculous claims, have more weight than Mark's hearsay quotation of a demon-possessed man:
 20 And He came home, and the crowd gathered again, to such an extent that they could not even eat a meal.
 21 When His own people heard of this, they went out to take custody of Him; for they were saying, "He has lost His senses." (Mk. 3:20-21 NAU)

 5 For not even His brothers were believing in Him. (Jn. 7:5 NAU)
 Inerrantist Brooks is quite explicit that "his own people" in Mark 3:21 means "family" and that they thought Jesus was acting like a crazy person to the point that they intended to take him by force:
3:21 In the Greek text the subject of the first two clauses is literally “those with him.” The KJV and RSV (1st ed.) interpret this to mean “his friends,” the NASB and NKJV “his own people,” and the RSV (2nd ed.), NRSV, NEB, REB, and NIV “his family.” In view of vv. 31–32 the last of these is certainly correct. The idea that Jesus’ family opposed him troubled some ancient copyists who changed the text to read, “When the scribes and the rest heard.” The concern of Jesus’ family was not likely limited to his physical needs (v. 20); they probably were more concerned about the family’s reputation because in their estimation Jesus was acting in a fanatical and even insane way. The same verb is used in Acts 26:24 and 2 Cor 5:13 and means literally to stand outside of oneself. The verb translated “to take charge” means to arrest in 6:17; 12:12; 14:1, etc. Evidently they intended to seize Jesus and force him to return to Nazareth with them.
Brooks, J. A. (2001, c1991). Vol. 23: Mark (electronic).
Engwer continues:
Jesus' mother, as in the infancy narratives, is named Mary (6:3).
I don't see how the infancy narratives getting the name of the mother right is supposed to lend any credence to their mythical elements.  There is nothing about getting somebody's name correct that suggests the author is intending to assert only historical facts.  1st John was written in part to combat a proto-gnosticism in which some heretics got the name of Jesus right, but got the theology wrong.  Thousands of Christian Jews got Paul's name correct, but apparently trusted in an allegedly false rumor about him, Acts 21:18-24.
Jesus has siblings (6:3), and Mark describes them in a way that corroborates the infancy narratives, as I explained when I discussed Matthew's gospel.
All that need prove is that the infancy narratives have expanded upon less mythical facts in the earlier Markan gospel.   And the fact that most scholars agree that Luke and Matthew are borrowing material from Mark anyway, means the "corroboration" is useless because it isn't independent.
The people of Nazareth in Mark 6:1-6 seem to be aware of some unusual circumstances surrounding Jesus' birth. Joel Marcus writes:
   
In Jewish sources the father's name is normally used to identify the son even when the father is dead (see e.g. Do'eg son of Joseph in b. Yoma 38b and Jesus son of Jesus in the Babatha archive; cf. Ilan, "Man," 23 n. 3). Contrary to this custom, Jesus is designated [in Mark 6:3] by his mother's name rather than his father's. Both Matthew and Luke revert to the usual pattern, Luke 4:22 reading "the son of Joseph" (cf. John 6:42) and Matt 13:55 "the son of the carpenter."…
Sure is funny that when inerrantists can find some support for their theory in the Talmud, they reference the Talmud as if the support is beyond question.  But when others point to statements in the Talmud to the effect that, say, children as young as 3 are suitable for sexual relations, then suddenly, the inerrantists remind us of what an unreliable grab bag of contradictory convoluted traditions the Talmud is.

 Indeed, the relevant portion from the Talmud says the saying was uttered by a Rabbi "Rabina"
Rabina raised an objection: The story of Doeg b. Joseph whom his father left to his mother when he was a young child:
It was this same "Rabina" who asserted that Gentile girls become "suitable for sexual relations" at 3 years of age:
  Said Rabina, “Therefore a gentile girl who is three years and one day old, since she is then suitable to have sexual relations, also imparts uncleanness of the flux variety.”     From Abodah Zarah 36B-37A:
Will somebody trifle that Rabina was faithful to the historical truth about the Jewish custom of calling sons after their fathers even after the father died, but was conveniently not faith to the truth about Jewish customs in his pedophilia?
    Ilan ("Man") has shown that a matronymic could be used when the mother's pedigree was superior to the father's, but that can scarcely be the case here, since Davidic descent was the most important of all, and Jesus was a Davidide on his father's side…
Jesus was Davidic because of his mothers' side too according to most scholars:
The problem would have been insoluble had it not been for the wisdom of God. The solution lay in the genealogy of Mary, recorded in Luke 3 (vv. 23–38), which goes back through Nathan to David. Through Mary Jesus is physically an heir of David, and through Joseph He receives the legal right to the throne (while sidestepping the physical curse upon that line). “Oh, the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are His judgments and unfathomable His ways!” (Rom. 11:33). Because of His miraculous conception our Lord receives title to the throne of David in the Kingdom of God. Dying without a son (cf. Isa. 53:8), He carried that title to the right hand of God. It is most interesting to note that since the destruction of Jerusalem in ad 70 it has been impossible to reconstruct the Davidic genealogy. The only reliable genealogies we have are those in Matthew and Luke, and they point incontrovertibly to Jesus of Nazareth as the virgin’s son—the divinely promised King of the Jews.
"The Virginal Conception of Our Lord  in Matthew 1:18-25  —  David J. MacLeod*  
The Emmaus Journal. 1999 (electronic ed.). 
EMJ—V8 #1—Sum 99—30.  Garland, TX: Galaxie Software.
 That Luke records Mary's genealogy was a position taken by many in the early church.  See Mary Through the Centuries: Her Place in the History of Culture, by Jaroslav Pelikan.  Paul David Younan says the genealogy of Matthew traces Mary back to David.  So let's not get too cocky about how Joseph is so important to establishing that Jesus descended from David.

Calvin thought Luke was tracing Mary's ancestry back to David:
But we have not yet replied to their objection, that the ancestry of Joseph has nothing to do with Christ. The common and well-known reply is, that in the person of Joseph the genealogy of Mary also is included, because the law enjoined every man to marry from his own tribe. It is objected, on the other hand, that at almost no period had that law been observed: but the arguments on which that assertion rests are frivolous.
Calvin, J. (2000). Calvin's Commentaries (electronic ed.). 
electronic ed. (Mt 1:18). Garland, TX: Galaxie Software.

R.A. Torrey agreed:
1. The genealogy given in Matthew is the genealogy of Joseph, the reputed father of Jesus, his father in the eyes of the law. The genealogy given in Luke is the genealogy of Mary, the mother of Jesus, and is the human genealogy of Jesus Christ in actual fact.
Torrey, R. (1998, c1996). Difficulties in the Bible : Alleged errors and contradictions
Willow Grove: Woodlawn Electronic Publishing.
Tertullian, Against Marcion, Book 4:
Isaiah He says: “Hear me, and ye shall live; and I will make an everlasting covenant with you,” adding “the sure mercies of David,” in order that He might show that that covenant was to run its course in Christ. That He was of the family of David, according to the genealogy of Mary, He declared in a figurative way even by the rod which was to proceed out of the stem of Jesse.
Schaff, P. (2000). The Ante-Nicene Fathers (electronic ed.). Garland, TX: Galaxie Software.
  Engwer continues:
    These alternate theories being found wanting, and given the hostile nature of the confrontation, it is likely that the use of Jesus' mother's name is a slur against his legitimacy, as Stauffer ("Jeschu") and S. Wilson (Strangers, 188) among others argue. This aspersion would correspond to the tendency in later Jewish traditions to portray Jesus as a bastard (see e.g. Origen Against Celsus 1:28-32, 39, 69; b. Sanh. 67a), a pattern that may already be reflected in John 8:41. Ilan, though disagreeing with this exegesis, cites an interesting parallel, the derogatory designation of Titus as "the son of Vespasian's wife" in 'Abot R. Nat. 7 (B), which implies that he is illegitimate (see Ilan, "Man," 42-43 n. 86, and cf. Saldarini, Fathers, 68 n. 15). McArthur ("Son of Mary") argues against the implication of illegitimacy in Mark 6:3 that "son of Mary" is an informal reference, not a formal genealogical expression, and that there is nothing necessarily unusual or derogatory about an identification by the mother's name in such informal contexts (cf. e.g. 1 Kgs 17:17; Acts 16:1). But Mark 6:3 comes closer to being a genealogical formula than the parallels cited because of the extensive list of other male family members. McArthur's theory, moreover, does not explain the apparent embarrassment of Matthew and Luke at Mark's term
You don't know that it was embarrassment that led Matthew or Luke to read a bit different.  Matthew says:
 54 He came to His hometown and began teaching them in their synagogue, so that they were astonished, and said, "Where did this man get this wisdom and these miraculous powers?
 55 "Is not this the carpenter's son? Is not His mother called Mary, and His brothers, James and Joseph and Simon and Judas?
 56 "And His sisters, are they not all with us? Where then did this man get all these things?"
 57 And they took offense at Him. But Jesus said to them, "A prophet is not without honor except in his hometown and in his own household."
 58 And He did not do many miracles there because of their unbelief. (Matt. 13:54-58 NAU)
 If indeed it is true that Matthew is here showing "apparent embarrassment" over Mark's more terse "son of Mary reading, then we have to ask why Matthew felt embarrassed by this reading.  Did he think he discovered a slur in the crowd's quoted language that Peter's interpreter Mark had missed? 

Does that sound like Matthew thought Mark wrote inerrantly?  Indeed, why else do Matthew and Luke change Mark's wording, if they thought Mark's choice of wording was inerrant?

Why should the teller of the virgin birth story feel the last bit embarrassed by an earlier gospel author reporting that Jesus was merely "son of Mary"?  Did Matthew perceive that this was not a mere sign that the people perceived something peculiar about Jesus' birth, but that they had good reason to believe Jesus was an authentic naturalistic bastard fathered by somebody other Joseph?

Furthermore, Metzger holds that there are early and wide textual variants in which the crowd in Mark 6:3 does mention Jesus' father Joseph, so apparently even early scribes felt Mark's choice of wording would likely be taken as contrary to the similar statement in Matthew 13:35:

6.3 te,ktwn( o` ui`o,j {A}
All uncials, many minuscules, and important early versions read, “Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary …?” Objection was very early felt to this description of Jesus as carpenter,11 and several witnesses (including p45) assimilate the text to Mt 13.55 and read, “Is not this the son of the carpenter, the son of Mary …?” The Palestinian Syriac achieves the same result by omitting o` te,ktwn.
 There is no reason why the emphasis on Jesus' mother throughout the gospels cannot simply imply that Joseph was dead by the time Jesus began his ministry.  Engwer is crazy to try to squeeze so much out of one phrase in Mark 6:3

Engwer continues his rebuttal to MacArthur:
or reckon with the hostile context of our passage
Maybe he doesn't, but there is hostile context in Matthew 13:55 too.

In my post on Matthew's gospel, I mentioned that we should take note of how themes in the infancy narratives are connected to other concepts.
Yeah, like themes in Greek mythology are connected to other concepts.  Big deal. But thanks for making clear that you aren't talking to skeptics.  You are clearly addressing only those who already believe and therefore need far less argument to cross the line and assert the historicity of Jesus' virgin birth.
If an early Christian source applies passages like Isaiah 11 and 52-53 to Jesus, how likely is it that he didn't also think Jesus fulfilled a Christmas passage like Isaiah 9?
Isaiah 9 was allegedly a prediction of Christ's ministry to the Gentiles.  If the gospels are historically reliable when they assert Jesus had a significant ministry to Gentiles:
  45 But he went out and began to proclaim it freely and to spread the news around, to such an extent that Jesus could no longer publicly enter a city, but stayed out in unpopulated areas; and they were coming to Him from everywhere. (Mk. 1:45 NAU)

12 Now when Jesus heard that John had been taken into custody, He withdrew into Galilee;
 13 and leaving Nazareth, He came and settled in Capernaum, which is by the sea, in the region of Zebulun and Naphtali.
 14 This was to fulfill what was spoken through Isaiah the prophet:
 15 "THE LAND OF ZEBULUN AND THE LAND OF NAPHTALI, BY THE WAY OF THE SEA, BEYOND THE JORDAN, GALILEE OF THE GENTILES--
 16 "THE PEOPLE WHO WERE SITTING IN DARKNESS SAW A GREAT LIGHT, AND THOSE WHO WERE SITTING IN THE LAND AND SHADOW OF DEATH, UPON THEM A LIGHT DAWNED."
 17 From that time Jesus began to preach and say, "Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand." (Matt. 4:12-17 NAU)
 15 But Jesus, aware of this, withdrew from there. Many followed Him, and He healed them all,
 16 and warned them not to tell who He was.
 17 This was to fulfill what was spoken through Isaiah the prophet:
 18 "BEHOLD, MY SERVANT WHOM I HAVE CHOSEN; MY BELOVED IN WHOM MY SOUL is WELL-PLEASED; I WILL PUT MY SPIRIT UPON HIM, AND HE SHALL PROCLAIM JUSTICE TO THE GENTILES.
 19 "HE WILL NOT QUARREL, NOR CRY OUT; NOR WILL ANYONE HEAR HIS VOICE IN THE STREETS.
 20 "A BATTERED REED HE WILL NOT BREAK OFF, AND A SMOLDERING WICK HE WILL NOT PUT OUT, UNTIL HE LEADS JUSTICE TO VICTORY.
 21 "AND IN HIS NAME THE GENTILES WILL HOPE."
 (Matt. 12:15-21 NAU)

...and if the apostles really heard the resurrected Jesus commission THEM to preach to Gentiles (Great Commission, Matthew 28:19), then what are the odds that Peter and the church would, shortly after Jesus ascended, regard the salvation of Gentiles as some shocking unexpected theological development they'd never have guessed without a special divine revelation to Peter, as they do in Acts 11:18?

Or does Engwer think such questions as his beg too many presuppositions to be answered?  If Engwer can safely assume the first-century Christian knows doctrine B because he knows doctrine A, why can't skeptics similarly argue that Acts 10-11 is false history, on the ground that Peter surely knew doctrine B (Gentiles could be saved) because he knew doctrine A (Jesus taught Gentile salvation)?
Mark often refers to the theme of Messianic prophecy fulfillment, even opening his gospel with it (1:2-3). Since Isaiah 9 and Micah 5 are two of the most explicitly Messianic passages in the Old Testament, how likely is it that Mark didn't think Jesus fulfilled those passages?
About as likely as Matthew thinking Mark's language was inaccurate.  Compare "could" do no miracle (Mark 6:5) with Matthew's theologically easier "did not" do any miracle there (13:58).

You apologists think Daniel 9 is an exceptionally powerful apologetic since it allegedly shows somebody in 600 b.c. predicting something about Jesus with amazing precision, but despite NT authors liking the idea of the OT predicting Jesus, nobody in the NT makes anywhere near the big deal out of it that you do.
One of the problems with critics of the infancy narratives is that they're too focused on what a source like Mark explicitly tells us.
That's because you enter dangerous territory when you try to draw conclusions from an author's alleged inferences or silence.  Mark's failure to explicitly mention the virgin birth, however, is so significantly unexpected that it screams out for an explanation other than his alleged acceptance of it.
Much of the relevant evidence is of an implicit nature.
Which might explain why your arguments are shockingly unpersuasive to any except inerrantist fundamentalists.
Mark doesn't say much directly about Jesus' childhood.
Probably because he didn't think anything about Jesus' childhood had significant relevance to the gospel message.  Again, Jesus replies in opposition to the women who brings up the subject of his mother, Luke 11, supra.
His gospel is derived from what Peter taught, and Peter's apostolic work was focused on what occurred from the ministry of John the Baptist onward (Acts 1:21-22).
Which is precisely why there's no need to assume Peter believed anything about the virgin birth story.
Peter would typically begin his public teaching with John and Jesus in their adulthood,
No, Peter's sermon in Acts 2:14 ff neither expresses nor implies anything about John the Baptist.  You are asserting patterns merely because, by your own admission, you detected Peter doing something in a single bible passage.  Peter's doing something once does not establish a pattern.
so Mark started his gospel there. But there are some implications for Jesus' childhood in what Mark tells us, even though he wasn't focused on the subject.
And what you overlook is that if Mark himself believed what you think he did (i.e., Jesus was born of a virgin, this is why there was a scandal about Jesus father or childhood), then Mark's failure to explicitly assert something in favor of the virgin birth is a screaming silence that suggests the assumption is wrong, and it is for another reason that he fails to explicitly assert any virgin birth matter.
Something else should be said here about the gospels and other early sources in general. Once Jesus begins publicly teaching and performing so many miracles, his adulthood overshadows his childhood.
No it doesn't, there was a lady who directed his attention to the blessedness of his mother, giving him the perfect opportunity to explicitly assert something about how his mother possessed any type of special uniqueness, yet Jesus opposes this female speaker and directs her away from the subject of his mother.  Luke 11:27-28, supra.
When Jesus was standing before people, teaching them and performing such a large number and variety of miracles in their midst, why would he spend much time pointing them to a far smaller number of miracles that occurred a few decades earlier, when he was a child?
Maybe for the same reason Matthew and Luke did when they did their preaching on the virgin birth?
Why would the New Testament authors and others involved give much attention to his childhood?
Ask Matthew and Luke, they can explain how it is that something in Jesus' childhood retained its historical importance despite Jesus himself becoming the center of attention.
Just as Old Testament prophecies about the Messiah's childhood are far outnumbered by predictions about his adulthood,
Yup, you aren't talking to skeptics.  There are no OT prophecies about Jesus' childhood, unless you are talking in the useless-for-apologetics sense of typology.
it makes sense for matters pertaining to Jesus' childhood to only occasionally come up during his adult ministry.
On the contrary, it makes sense to assert that the virgin birth stories of Jesus are late inventions, and we normally expect the earlier account to be less encumbered with embellishments, which appears to be exactly what happened here.

Sunday, July 9, 2017

Demolishing Triablogue, part 4: Steve Hays' absurdly low standards for miracle-investigation

 Update: apparently, Steve Hays cannot assert that my skepticism of modern-day miracles is the result of me being stupid or spiritually dead, because other Christians have chided Steve for his ridiculous position that one cannot deny the authenticity of Benny Hinn's miracles without endangering the authenticity of biblical miracles. 


In 2014, I posted the following argument to Steve Hays at Triablogue:  In short, atheists have rational justification to dismiss all modern-day miracle claims, in most cases, because the only kind of investigation that would count as objective, is the kind that was comprehensive, and the typical atheist, with a family and a job, simply does not have enough time, money or resources to go checking out, in a thorough way, modern-day miracle claims.  I also had something to say about why miracle claims consistently fail the acid test of regrowth of  missing limbs.  Suspiciously, the "miracles" alleged today are always things that are more prone to fraud and falsification, medical error, etc.  If God does miracles today to convince people of the gospel, we have to wonder why he scratched healing of missing limbs off of his magic to-do list.

Hays' response did what my argument was designed to do: force the apologist to take an irrational position.

This is my reply to Hays' criticism of my argument.

    The critic’s basic argument is that, assuming god is the omni-everything that the bible says he is, the lack of medically verified regrowing of limbs among those who claim documentation of miracle-healing, is suspicious, given that the regrowing of a missing limb, clearly beyond the abilities of current science, would be the acid test of the miracle-healing claim.

Since God never promised to heal amputees, there's nothing suspicious about God not doing what God never said he was going to do.
Not so fast:  assuming historical reliability of the gospels, you don't know that the restoration of missing limbs wasn't a part of Jesus' healing ministry.  Jesus did the very similar miracle of healing a withered hand:
 10 After looking around at them all, He said to him, "Stretch out your hand!" And he did so; and his hand was restored. (Lk. 6:10 NAU)
Magical creation of new tissues must also have occurred in the healing of the blind man in John 9:7.  Indeed, healing of any genuine bodily disease would require either creation of new material, or fixing the existing material, so if Jesus could heal withered hands and blind eyes, it really isn't asking him to do anything harder or different to restore missing limbs.  Furthermore, Jesus allegedly promised that his followers would do even greater miracles:
12 "Truly, truly, I say to you, he who believes in Me, the works that I do, he will do also; and greater works than these he will do; because I go to the Father. (Jn. 14:12 NAU)
The issue is not what God promised, but what the rational consequences are that flow from the biblical data, assuming your inerrantist view as true for the sake of argument.  If God heals withered hands, why doesn't he heal missing limbs?  What do you normally conclude when a claim can pass weak tests (my doctor said he was astonished that my broken back healed itself while I prayed) but cannot pass the acid test (I can't remember the name of the doctor or where I was treated)?
I said: 
    I think my fellow skeptics are unwise to pursue this particular argument, since, as proven from the article at Triablogue, this particular criticism emboldens apologists to lure us into areas of pure speculation.
 Hays:
So even though he admits that it's unwise for atheists to pursue this particular argument, he persists in doing so anyway. Go figure.
 Yeah, and the bible  within the space of two verses gives reasons to both answer and not answer a fool, Proverbs 26:4-5, but doesn't specify the exact conditions by which you can know which advice is most proper.  If you can see that the author was speaking in general terms, why can't you see that was the case here, so that while the amputee argument usually does lead to useless speculation, there are times when pursuing the argument would be valid?  I'm sorry for assuming you were a cut above the other apologists and that we could debate the subject without going off into pure speculation.  My bad.
   I said:  I argue in another post that the minimum expenses and and time lost from work/family necessary for skeptics to track down important evidence and otherwise do a seriously thorough investigation on miracle claims, make it absurd for apologists to saddle skeptics with the obligation to “go check out the claims”.  If the apologists at Triabolgue [sic] are serious, they would obligate a skeptic living in America to expend whatever resources necessary to get to southern Africa (‘Gahna), properly interview all witnesses and get back home.  Absolute nonsense.
Hays: i) A classic strawman. I never suggested that evaluating a miracle claim requires you to reinterview the witnesses.
 Then your standard of evidence is unacceptably low.  When claims are such that they can change lives for the better or worse, it is important to make sure they really are true, to guard against what often happens, somebody being drawn away into believing false claims that engender false hope. The whole point is that you are put in a bind:  If we atheists are obligated to go "check out" miracle claims, it is only fair that the type of "checking out" we are responsible to do, be the comprehensive kind since fraudulent miracle claims abound.  But if you agree to that reasonable prospect, then you have to say we aren't obligated anymore, since it is not rational to expect the average atheist with family and job to come up with the money necessary to go chasing down miracle claims.  But if you try to avoid the financial problem and say we are obligated to "check out" the claims only in the lesser sense of merely gathering testimonial evidence and evaluating it at a distance, then you end up doing what you did here:  setting forth an absurdly low standard of evidence and pretending we can gain reasonable certainty about the truth or falsity of a miracle claim by simply evaluating testimonial evidence.  In short, the only way you can intellectually obligate a skeptic to "check out" miracle claims is if you insist they perform their analysis in the comprehensive way that the average person simply doesn't have the time, money or resources to perform, thus defeating your entire purpose in challenging them to so investigate.
If, however, an atheist is so irrational that he refuses to believe testimonial evidence unless he personally conducts the interview, then that's his self-imposed burden of proof.  
On the contrary, that higher standard of evidence was suggested by Keener:
"Rumor tends to shape and exaggerate stories, so it is desireable to come as close to eyewitness accounts or other first-hand sources as possible.  The nature of narrativisation and  testimony is such that successful cures are remembered disproportionately." 
You have not demonstrated that requiring personal interview is irrational or unreasonable, especially in light of the fact that today, "testimonial" evidence is easily falsified, espescially in today's world where the miracle claim usually gts advertised through the internet and other conduits. Falsified testimony is exposed in Courts every day.  False affidavits, doctor error in the medical reports, photoshopping, claimant simply lying to get attention/money (viz. the Lutz's and their Amityville horror hoax).  The irrational person is the idiot apologist who thinks documentary evidence short of personal interviews is sufficient to tell whether the claimed miracle is true or false.  And unless you've been living under a rock, atheists are rational to require this higher standard of evidence be met given that false and unverified miracle claims are far more popular than whatever number you think are legitimate.
ii) I'd add that his complaint is very quaint, as if he were living in the 18C, and had to interview witnesses face-to-face. Has he never heard of email or telephones?
So apparently you think I can learn enough about a miracle claim solely through email that it will intellectually obligate me to change my worldview?  You think talking with somebody solely over a phone should provide evidence of sufficient quantity/quality that I can reasonably tell whether they are lying, mistaken, or honest?

 Steve, have you ever met anybody who changed their worldview solely because of evidence they obtained from email or phone?  No, you haven't.  Like I said, the fact that you disagree with my position here means you are forced to take an unreasonable position yourself...such as arguing that a phone call should suffice to convince me that a miracle claim is true (!?)

You may conveniently qualify that you meant email or phone in conjunction with other evidence.

Ok, what other evidence? Doctor's report?  What if the miracle claim is on the internet and I downloaded the medical report from the website?  Should I or shouldn't I attempt to authenticate the report?  Or do you just insist that if it's from the internet, it's true?
In fact, even before the advent of airplanes, people wrote letters to solicit information.
But since a) letters can easily be falsified, b) letters can exaggerate the truth, it only makes good sense to attempt authentication of a letter where possible, and to responsibly back off the dogmatism if the miracle-claim depends primarily on a writing whose author is no longer available to authenticate it.  I think this is the part where you start telling the world why all lawyers and judges are just stupid thugs for believing that the need to authenticate testamentary materials helps the jury to know the actual truth.

Indeed, if you read about a modern-day miracle claim on the internet, do you perform any more substantive investigation than simply collecting the known written and oral testimonies?
  I said:  No Christian is going to travel half way around the world to investigate a claim that the ultimate miracle debunking has happened, so they have no business expecting skeptics to go halfway around the world in effort to properly conduct an independent investigation of a miracle-claim.
Hays: There's no parity between these two positions. Atheism posits a universal negative with respect to miracles. An atheist must reject every single reported miracle. By contrast, it only takes one miracle to falsify atheism. Therefore, the atheist and the Christian apologist do not share the same burden of proof. Not even close.
No, its very close; Christians must reject every claimed argument for naturalism, since it only takes one proper evidence of naturalism to falsify Christian miracle claims.  Therefore, the atheist and Christian apologist share the same burden of proof.  I cannot scour every square inch of the universe to verify that God isn't there, and you can't scour every square inch of the universe to verify that no successful arguments for naturalism exist.  You'd be stupid to attempt such a feat.
    I said: Would it be too much to ask apologists to do something more with their claim of miracle healing, than simply provide references?
i) Actually, that would be asking too much.
Then why do your miracle defenses involve more than simply citing references to claimed miracles?  Methinks you don't seriously believe that emailing to me a reference to a documentary claim of a miracle discharges your rightful burden.  Otherwise, to be fair, you have to allow that atheists fulfill their burden by simply giving you references to find arguments supporting naturalism.
Just as we accept documentation for other historical events, we ought to accept documentation for miracles. Miracles are just a subset of historical events in general.
But some miracle documentation is falsified.  How do you discern which are falsified, if, as you believe, asking apologists for more than "references" would be asking too much?  You earlier said telephones work too.  If I gave you the phone number of a man living in Sudan who thinks he has found the ultimate argument for naturalism, would you give him a ring?  No, of course not.  Then you cannot insist you transfer the burden to an atheist immediately upon giving them nothing but "references" to miracles.
ii) His complaint only makes sense if there's a standing presumption against the occurrence of miracles, so that miracles must meet a higher standard of evidence. But as I've often argued, that begs the question.
Ok, so to avoid begging the question, I should react to the person seriously claiming to have walked to the store and back yesterday, no differently than I react to the person who seriously claims to have levitated by mental powers alone.

Your attempted wiggle is irrational, as must be the case when you resist the mountain of truth I threw at you with my original arguments:  If we don't demand for miracles a higher standard of evidence than we demand for unextraordinary claims, then because I usually do accept, absent good evidence to the contrary, the testimony that somebody walked to the store and back, I must therefore also accept, absent good evidence to the contrary, the testimony that somebody levitated by mental powers alone.  That's what logically results if we take your lower standard of evidence seriously.  This guy said he walked to the store, that other guy says he can float by mental power alone, and if I dare hold the latter to a higher standard of proof before believing him, I commit the fallacy of begging the question.

Steve, have you ever been suspicious, despite inability to actually prove it false, that some testimony is false?  If I told you I found $370 million dollars in authentic U.S Currency in the middle of my street last week, wouldn't your immediate reaction be one of skepticism? If so, why?  Do you worship David Hume, and like him, get more and more suspicious as the claimed event departs more and more from your daily experience?

How many times have we verified that a person is capable of walking to the store and back?

How many times have we verified that a person can levitate by mental powers alone?

And you think the same standard of evidence should be applied in both cases? Like I said, you aren't going to oppose my argument justifying refusal to investigate miracles, without enduring the consequence of sounding like a fool.
iii) I'd also note in passing that if God exists, then it would be extraordinary if miracles didn't happen. If God exists, then miracles are to be expected.
No, that's just your Calvinist bible assumptions rearing their ugly heads.  If there is an intelligent creator responsible for the universe, that doesn't automatically imply miracles are possible.  That's about as dumb as the ant concluding that humans can do anything logically possible, because we have so much more power and intelligence than an ant.
iv) I'd add that belief in miracles doesn't require prior belief in God. Evidence for miracles is, itself, evidence for God.
   I said:  If you seriously believe you have evidence of a modern day healing that cannot be explained by current medical science, set forth your case.
Hays: Testimonial evidence is setting forth a case.
I can find plenty of testimonial evidence to miracles on the internet.  So do you think presenting miracle-testimonies collected from the internet constitutes setting forth a case?  If so, then perhaps you think presenting testimony of Loch Ness monster witnesses constitutes setting forth a case.  Sorry, Steve, the price of disagreeing with me is to show that your standard of evidence is absurdly low.

Steve, what was your opinion of the reality of the Loch Ness monster, before it was proven to be a hoax?  What did you do with the eyewitness testimonies?  Did you automatically believe them?  If not, then how did you evaluate them before the hoax was revealed?  Did you remain skeptical of the testimonies?  If so, why?  What was it about those testimonies that made you suspicious that whatever they might have seen was something other than a Loch Ness monster?
 I said:   ...God having the sovereign right to avoid doing monster miracles, accomplishes nothing more than helping distract the less educated Christian readers from the simple fact that you have ZERO medically documented medically inexplicable healings.
Hays: That's just an empty denial in the face of explicit documentation to the contrary.
And conveniently, you avoid the heat by refusing to provide even one little bit of said documentation.  Come on Steve, provide for me medical documentation of a healing that you say is the most immune to naturalistic explanation.  What, are you afraid that you'll start contradicting your low "testimonial evidence should suffice" standard, when I start asking what attempt you made to authenticate the report? 
    I said: Steve says Craig Keener has cited documented cases of body-part regeneration. Cf. Miracles The Credibility of the New Testament Accounts. So there’s prima facie evidence that God heals some amputees (or the equivalent). Does Steve know of anybody who has attempted to obtain the medical documentation and/or witness statements that Keener has cited?
Hays: Do atheists make the same demand for cures in general?
 Excuse me, Steve:  I asked you whether you know of anybody who has attempted to obtain the medical documentation and/or witness statements that Keener has cited.  Your answer doesn't help me obtain documentation to support your extolling of Keener's evidence.  Please answer directly.
If a patient recovers from stage-1 cancer, do they refuse to believe it unless they can read the medical records for themselves and interview the patient?
I don't believe whatever a doctor tells me, until I've had time to examine for myself the evidence that led him to his conclusion.  After all, doctors have been wrong plenty of times about whether somebody has "recovered" from cancer.  Also, your attempted analogy is fallacious, as the reason we usually believe a doctor without attempting to independently verify his accuracy is because we know he is aware of a malpractice suit that might come his way if he lies or distorts the facts and we believe him in a way that causes us further unnecessary injury.  There is no equally motivating threat hanging over the head of a miracle-claimant.  You lose.
I said: Notice the unexamined bias. 
     It would be helpful for apologists to provide the one case of body part regeneration they feel is the most compelling, and lets get the ball rolling on the subject of just how good the medical documentation, diagnosis and witness statements really are.
Hays: Demanding evidence of body-part regeneration is an artificial litmus test for miracles.
I did not express or imply that body-part regeneration was supposed to be any litmus test for miracles.  I was talking about the cases of body-part regeneration Keener alleged in his work, which you cited to, supra.  You and/or Keener are indeed making the claim that there is evidence for body-part regeneration miracles, but so far, you seem more interested in sophistry than in getting down to business and providing me with those "references".  Don't make a claim and expect atheists to cower in fear unless you back it up with argument and evidence. When you get in the mood to subject to atheist scrutiny the one body-part regeneration miracle testimony that you believe can most likely survive the test of investigation, send me the "references" for it.
I never took that demand seriously in the first place. I'm just calling their bluff.
What are you talking about?  Are you saying you don't take seriously claims of miraculous body-part regeneration?
Atheists who refuse to consider evidence for miracles in general, and instead resort to this decoy, betray their insincerity. Logically, the case for miracles is hardly confined to one artificial class of miracles.
True, but you are still stuck with the ominous fact that despite your god allegedly finding it no more difficult to restore missing limbs than to heal fever, the former is conspicuously absent among miracle claims that can be investigated to any significant degree.  It's not really different from the guy who claims to have graduated from Harvard with his medical degree, but can never quite get around to supplying enough information to enable positive verification or falsification of anything beyond graduating from high school.  Sorry Steve, but its perfectly reasonable and rational to pick a time when the failure to pass the acid test is the point where initial skepticism justifiably begins.  I can accept that some guy on the street is telling the truth that he is a brain surgeon, but I 'm gonna start having problems with the claim if for unknown reasons he always dodges attempts to verify his medical education or occupation.  The issue is not what's true, but what's reasonable for the investigator to believe if their attempts to verify are met with silence. 
    I said: Apologists think they score big on the objectivity scale by insisting that skeptics and atheists do their own research into the claims for miracles that appear in Christian books.  A large list of miracle-claim references may be found in Craig Keener’s two volume set “Miracles (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Academic, 2011)”.  But if we are realistic about the time and money required to be expended in the effort to properly investigate a single modern-day miracle claim, it becomes immediately clear that the apologist advice that skeptics should check out those claims, is irrational for all except super-wealthy super-single super-unemployed super-bored skeptics.
Hays: That's ironic, considering the obvious fact that Keener isn't "super-wealthy, super-single, or super-unemployed."
No analogy, Keener's obvious motive to do whatever investigation he did, was his Christian faith, and regardless, you cannot reasonably expect atheists who have lives and jobs not involving Christianity, to suddenly give up their mode of life and go chasing down miracle claims.  He didn't properly investigate, as he himself admits his miracle references are just that (i.e., "I lack the means to evaluate all of the claims adequately", 241, "When I have offered judgments that some reports are likely authentic or inauthentic [perhaps based on my training as a biblical critic] I have offered opinions based on where I think evidence points, but often the evidence at my disposal is quite limited, and inevitably my judgments will sometimes be wrong....I could not personally investigate all the reports with interviews and certainly not with medical examinations..."), he does not claim to have done more investigation into his myriad miracle claims than what was necessary to obtain the references.  And it wouldn't matter if he had...I would be investigating his investigation, and as such, no, I would not "just believe" should he have described participating in some healing event that he solemnly testifies he watched miracles take place in.  I'd then have to evaluate Keener's own credibility, and that cannot be done by email or phone, unless you'd agree that when you are framed for murder, it is sufficient for your attorney to deal with the prosecution's witness against you solely by phone and email?  If the importance of avoiding jail justifies the heightened standard of evidence, how much more so the importance of avoiding getting suckered into some cult?

I never said you have to be super-wealthy, super-single, or super-unemployed to produce a long list of miracle claims.  And its not ironic since, if you were to claim some healing took place in Africa, the only American citizen atheist that could do a properly thorough job of investigation, authentication of testimony and testing for fraud, would have to be super-wealthy, super-single, or super-unemployed.  Your suggestion that such atheist need not operate at such high standard of evidence does little more than subject him to the possibility of being deceived by a clever fraud, and God knows, the world is full of fraudulent miracle claims.  Insisting on the higher standard of evidence creates the benefit of further guarding against being drawn into a cult or false religion by means of clever fraud.
Indeed, as Keener said in the introduction, "I have no research team, no research assistants, and no research funds; nor have I had sabbaticals to pursue this research" (1:12). What hinders an atheist from doing what Keener did? 
Nothing, because putting together a long list of anecdotal references to miracle claimants doesn't require one to be super-wealthy, super-single, or super-unemployed, and I never said otherwise.  What I said was that properly thorough and comprehensive analysis and testing of miracle claims cannot be done by the average person but only by those who are super-wealthy, super-single, or super-unemployed.  Putting together a list of miracle claim references does not constitute properly thorough and comprehensive analysis and testing of those miracle claims. Agreed?
    I said: Apologists, desperate to cut the skeptic’s costs as much as possible so as to leave them “without excuse”, will suggest ways to cut the costs as described above...
Hays: Another strawman. Atheists are already without excuse.
Preaching the choir. Feel better?
 I said:    What bright ideas do you have for the married miracle skeptic whose wife homeschools their children, who has only one job?
Hays: Since when did atheists join the Christian homeschooling movement?
Ok, so you use the stupid premise that you don't know when atheists joined the homeschooling movement, as substitute for direct answer?  If you have any bright ideas of the sort I asked for, please give them.  Steve, is there a reason why you think the atheists who tangle with you, shit themselves in fear every time you challenge them?  Not only am I not seeing it, I highly doubt you'd accept a formal debate challenge. Would you like to have a formal debate about my challenge (i.e., that atheists have full rational justification to dismiss miracle claims before bothering to investigate them)?
  I said:   If skeptics need to stay open to the possibility of miracles merely because they cannot rationally go around investigating each and every miracle claim, then must you, the Christian apologist, stay open to the possibility that miracles don’t happen, on the grounds that you don’t have the time or money to investigate every single naturalistic argument skeptics have ever come up with?
Hays: Once again, these are asymmetrical positions. It only takes on miracle to exclude atheism, whereas atheism must exclude every miracle.
Once again, these are not asymmetrical positions.  It only takes one successful argument for naturalism to exclude Christianity.
I said:  And the bad news is that it doesn’t matter if we investigate a single claim and come up with good reasons to remain skeptical of it….there are thousands of other miracle claims complete with identifiable eyewitnesses and alleged medical documentation that we haven’t investigated.
Hays:  i) That's the dilemma for atheism. A position with an insurmountable burden of proof. Good luck with that. Not my problem.

On the contrary, it IS your problem because you cannot call somebody a fool for refusing to do a half-assed job of investigating something.  When you counter my proposal of serious interviewing and authenticating documents, with the prospect of relying solely on testimonial evidence an perhaps email and phone, you are asking atheists to do a half-assed job of investigating miracles.  I am not unreasonable to reject your half-assed proposal as irrational, insist that only a comprehensive investigation will suffice, and then dismiss miracles immediately since employing the proper methodology would cost more money and time than anybody could rationally expect anybody to expend.  You start telling me that investigating an alleged healing in Germany is more important than my earning a paycheck to keep my family fed and housed, and your circle of followers will either decrease or sink further into absurd fanaticism.
ii) Atheists are like paranoid cancer patients who refuse treatment until they can verify the treatment for themselves.
No, blind trust in a doctor is justified by the threat over his head called "malpractice suit".  No such motivation exists over the head of those who make miracle claims.  I believe you said something about two positions being asymmetric?
They make irrational, time-consuming demands on the oncologist to prove the efficacy of cancer therapy.
Nope, its more likely he's telling the truth to the best of his ability, than that he is lying. While on the other hand, whether a miracle claim, found somewhere on the internet, is telling the truth, deluded or intentionally deceptive, remains unknown unless one wishes to expend the money, time and resources necessary to investigate them in a way that guards the most against fraud or mistake.
But the oncologist is under no obligation to accede to their unreasonable demands.
So apparently you are the dumbest idiot on the planet, since a doctor is required by law to provide the patient with their own medical records at their request and to explain the reasons why the doctor gives the diagnosis or prognosis that she did.
He's not the one with the life-threatening disease. He has nothing to prove to the paranoid patient.
So in your world, doctors do not attempt to prove their conclusions to paranoid patients who ask for such case to be made.  They simply discharge them, send a bill, and ignore requests for explanation and evidence. I told you fundy Christianity comes with irrational consequences, but no, you wouldn't listen.
It's the patient whose life is on the line. It's the patient who has everything to lose.
If the patient is diagnosed with stage-1 cancer, but refuses treatment for 8 months while he conducts his own "independent" investigation–by interviewing other patients–then even if he succeeds in satisfying his personal curiosity, and is now amendable to therapy, by that time he will have stage-4 cancer–at which point therapy is futile.
Again, automatic blind faith in a doctor is justified because they are regulated by law and endure the threat of a malpractice suit for negligence or willful deception, achieving the desired result of reducing the chances that they are lying or mistaken, to nearly zero.  No such inducement to tell truth hangs over the head of random miracle claimants found all over the world, as abundantly testified to by the thousands of falsified miracle claims, Benny Hinn and 99% of all faith-healing televangelists, who function here as prime examples.
  I said:   If the apologists here saw video footage of a dog flying around a room using biological wings sprouting out of its back, would they insist on making sure all other alternative explanations were definitively refuted before they would be open to considering that this was a real dog with real natural flying ability? Then skeptics, likewise, when confronted with evidence for a miracle healing, would insist on making sure all other alternative possible explanations were definitively refuted before they would start considering that the claimed miracle was genuinely supernatural in origin.
Hays: i) That's an argument from analogy minus the argument. Where's the supporting argument to show that miracles are analogous to flying dogs?
Is there any serious difference between flying dogs, talking donkeys and talking serpents?
Answer the question, you frightened barking child!  If somebody got in your face and insisted their video of a flying dog is authentic and proves at least one dog has genuine natural flying ability, would you or would you not attempt to authenticate this?  Or would you rely on Hume's automatic dismissal of miracles to tell yourself it's so likely that fraud is afoot here that you are rational to dismiss the claim before investigating it?

I posit a flying dog, while you posit bizarre creatures with multiple faces, whose figurative interpretation is far from obvious (Ezekiel 1:6, Calvin adopts the literal interpretation and so does inerrantist LaMar Eugene Cooper, so you cannot assert the literal interpretation is the result of spiritual deadness). If anything, it is YOUR bizarre creatures that are less likely to be true than a flying dog. Again, the cheribum on top of the Ark are human-like and have wings (Ex. 25:20).  I guess this is the part where you ask me why I think winged dogs are analogous to winged humans?  Again, your religion requires you to believe in quasi-human-like "seraphim" that have six wings (Isaiah 6:1-2), and because they are said to "fly", this is reasonably interpreted as implying there is air in heaven, since the wings are presented as the basis upon which it flies.  Go take a long walk and do some soul-searching before you bite back that flying dog are more ridiculous than talking snakes, talking donkeys, and flying four-faced quasi-humans.  If your religious defense mechanisms were not on red alert, you'd scoff just as loudly at the prospect of a talking donkey as you do at the prospect of a flying dog.
ii) Instead of dealing with the actual evidence for actual miracles, atheists deflect attention away from the evidence by floating hypothetical examples. But that's a diversionary tactic.
Hypotheticals are standard argument fare.  Apparently you are new to the concept?  And there's no diversionary tactic.  If you believe in flying four-faced creatures and talking donkeys/talking snakes, it is rational to expect that you are open to the prospect of believing in flying dogs.
iii) Moreover, it's self-defeating. If an atheist concocts the most ridiculous hypothetical he can think of,
I rebuke you in the name of Jesus, you idolatrous Hume-worshiper, you.  Your puny little pool of life experience is such a tiny fraction of reality, you have no rational justification to assume that flying dogs are "ridiculous".  Just because you haven't experienced them doesn't mean other people haven't.  What's next?  You gonna deny Jesus rose from the dead because you have no experience of anybody else who resurrected after two days of being dead?
 then, yes, the example strains credulity. But that's because he went out of his way to concoct an artificially ridiculous example. That's a circular exercise. Unbelievable because he made it unbelievable.
What is it about a flying dog, that motives you to characterize it as an "artificially ridiculous" example?  Would you cite any traits of the dog that are analogous to the equally bizarre creatures mentioned in the bible?  The answer is obvious, but if you give it, you risk sounding like one of those idiots who think their own pool of life experience is a sufficient pool of knowledge from which to justify declaring what's possible and what's not.

You wouldn't want to look stupid, so you'll likely avoid answering that question directly.
5 comments:
    rockingwithhawking8/23/2014 2:37 AM 
    In addition to Steve's excellent response:
    1. Edward Goljan is basically a celebrity in modern medical education. He's quite well-known. He's a board certified pathologist, and a former professor in an Oklahoma medical school. Presumably porphyryredux can contact him via email.
 I don't believe getting response by email constitutes the type of properly thorough miracle investigation I defended against Hays' attacks above.  When you come up with the money to allow me to travel to wherever Ed is living so I can personally interview him, and pay my expenses involved in obtaining and authenticating the medical reports allegedly documenting the miracle, let me know.  So far, your "sourcing" your claims about him in wikipedia is laughable.  My time and money are important.  I don't start investigating miracles merely because one was alleged in a publicly edited encyclopedia. snip
    2. Does porphyryredux raise the "body part regeneration" objection because he objects to miracles in general and uses "body part regeneration" miracles to show miracles aren't possible, or because he's assuming human "body part regeneration" is preposterous in and of itself?
Because he thinks that if Christianity is true, restoration of missing limbs wouldn't be so rare among miracle claims.  If miracles are for testifying to the gospel, restoring missing limbs does the job no less than putting cancer into remission.   Sure is funny that the one miracle whose naturalistic explanation is the most unlikey and unreasonable, is the one that can never be verified, despite Christians who claim plenty of other miracles are verified.  If God is going to part the Red Sea to the point that it was a wall of water on either side of the Israelites (Exodus 14:22), then you won't be wasting my time with any "God-doesn't want-to-violate-their-freewill-with-too-powerful-evidence" nonsense.

Ever notice that Benny Hinn never heals missing limbs?   Would any fool argue that this is because God is allowed to heal in whatever way he chooses?  Wouldn't most sane people say the reason Hinn's miracles never include the type that constitute the acid test, is because he isn't doing miracles in the first place?
    If the former, then as Steve has alluded to, there are other classes of miracles. So even if (ad arguendo) "body part regeneration" miracles are shown to be false, it hardly disproves the possibility for the miraculous in general.
Yes, it doesn't necessarily falsify miracles in general.  But it's a pretty good probability argument.  Again, sure is strange that the only miracles we ever hear about, even assuming with Christians that some miracles have been verified as real, are those which are more susceptible to fraud or error, than restoring of missing limbs.   The one miracle we never see confirmed is precisely the one that would be the acid-test.  Why does God bother doing half-assed miracles that don't send skeptics diving their faces into the ground in solemn remorse?  If you want an employer to hire you, do you do less than your best to impress her at the interview? 
    If the latter, then it seems it's not the miraculous with which porphyryredux takes issue but rather the idea of human "body part regeneration" itself. As such, we don't really need to say anything more.
    3. However, just for fun:
    a. There are some "body parts" which can regenerate (e.g. skin, liver). Likewise, there are stories of kids regenerating their fingertips. See here for example. Or for a more scholarly take, check this out.
Irrelevant, I don't say body-part regeneration is logically impossible, I simply say that I'm highly suspicious of this idea that the almighty creator of the universe, who apparently didn't previously mind blowing people's minds with monster miracles, today does only half-assed portents in ways subjecting them to legitimate disagreement by reasonable people.  Sounds to me that it's not the work of an intelligent god, but the work of active human imaginations with a bit of willful deception and innocent ignorance thrown in. 
     So in principle, what's so absurd about "body part regeneration"?
Nothing, especially for a god who doesn't find it harder than curing fever.  So why is he always allegedly curing fevers but never missing body parts?  How about a certified brain surgeon who by choice takes a job as a mere nurse at an elementary school?  Would you respond to me "Who are you to judge him on what he wants to do?"?  Or would you respond "it's not very likely that it was solely by choice that a certified brain surgeon would take up work as a school nurse"?
    c. Of course, if it's not absurd, if it's possible future scientists and doctors could regenerate body parts for amputees or others, then doubtless future atheists would raise the objection that what previous generations thought miraculous must've been due to some then-unknown natural process. I imagine some things will never change.
Not likely:  You'd have to prove that in the past some people really did have their missing legs or arms restored before science got the capability of doing it, before atheists could make that objection, and you won't be proving any such thing in this life or any other.

        ANNOYED PINOY8/23/2014 8:11 AM   
        Good point. It's interesting that modern claims and documentation of miraculous restoration of sight isn't awe inspiring and seemingly miraculous to atheists.
It shouldn't be.  I've asked Steve Hays to provide me documentation for the one healing miracle in modern times he thinks is least susceptible to naturalistic interpretation, and he chose to engage in sophistry instead of getting down to actual business.  Should he ever escape philosophical hell, and judge Christianity worth something more than his ability to trifle about trifles, I'll be ready to analyze the evidence. 
That's probably due to the fact that modern doctors can restore certain forms of blindness. But before doctors were able to do that atheists back then probably would have claimed the restoration of eye sight as nearly impossible and therefore the Biblical accounts of miracles (and their accompanying theology) are unbelievable.
The less often something happens, the more justification to be skeptical of any claim that it actually did happen.  yeah, people win the lottery, but only a fool would immediately believe the stranger who asserted such a thing.  Yeah, golfers have gotten a hole in one before, but if I have the slightest reason to believe a particular golfer has more motive than truth in telling me such a story, I'll have full rational warrant to be skeptical.  You cannot avoid the absolute truth that the more rare some act is, the more rational we are to be skeptical absent good evidence to the contrary.  No, Steve, "good" evidence is not email, telephone and affidavits.  "Good" evidence is authenticated evidence that survives naturalistic explanations.

Let me know when you ever feel compelled to actually get down to business and start providing what you believe to be the best of your evidence for modern-day healings or other miracles.
         This reminds me of a Biblical passage: 
        Never since the world began has it been heard
that anyone opened the eyes of a man born blind.- John 9:32
       
What was impossible then, modern doctors can do now in some instances.
I don't see your point.  ancient atheists who balked immediately at claims of restored vision might have technically been wrong since some types of blindness can indeed be fixed.  But what's the point of observing that they were wrong in the past about the body's natural ability to heal from certain types of illness or disability?
        BTW, the healing of the blind man from Bethsaida in Mark 8:22-26 has the marks of authenticity because it appears to describe a modern phenomenon called post-blind syndrome. When modern doctors heal some people of blindness, they can sometimes experience post-blind syndrome, where their brains can't interpret the messages their (now working) eyes are sending them. Here's a Breakpoint article on it.
No, its perfectly reasonable to assume there were plenty of people born in the first century with a curable condition of blindness, who did not receive their sight until later in life, and who testified to how bizarre the world looked while their sight restoration was in progress.  And you unwittingly support David Hume with your answer:  You appear to think the criteria for mark of authenticity, is the degree to which a claim corresponds with verifiably true past events :)
    In my blog HERE I explain why I disagree with Craig's apparent view that special providence is never miraculous.
If even spiritually alive people cannot agree on God's providence, spiritually dead people have full rational warrant to completely dismiss the subject as nothing but sophistry and illusion.  Though they retain the right to enter the fray if there's nothing good on cable.

Jason Engwer doesn't appreciate the strong justification for skepticism found in John 7:5

Bart Ehrman, like thousands of other skeptics, uses Mark 3:21 and John 7:5 to argue that Jesus' virgin birth (VB) is fiction.  Jason Eng...