Showing posts with label gospel authorship. Show all posts
Showing posts with label gospel authorship. Show all posts

Friday, August 24, 2018

Cold Case Christianity: The extent to which Mark relies on Peter's preaching can be reasonably doubted

This is my reply to an article by J. Warner Wallace entitled




The authorship of the New Testament Gospels has become a point of contention for many skeptics who deny the traditional attributions of Mark, Matthew or John.
Read any modern commentary on Mark written by a Christian scholar.  Christians are also having problems with the link between Mark and Peter.  Here's one evangelical Christian scholar who scoffs at the idea that Peter was the primary source of Mark:
Without doubt a close examination of Mark’s material will show that the evangelist did not simply write his Gospel based on his notes or memory of Peter’s teachings. The amazing similarity in language, style, and form of the Synoptic tradition between the Markan and non-Markan materials of Matthew and Luke (cf. John’s Gospel) hardly suggests that Mark’s materials were shaped by one man, be he either Peter or Mark.
Guelich, R. A. (2002). Vol. 34A: Word Biblical Commentary : Mark 1-8:26
Word Biblical Commentary (Page xxvii). Dallas: Word, Incorporated.
 With that kind of admission, the extent to which any particular passage in Mark constitutes a quotation from Peter is well-nigh impossible to resolve, thus justifying the skeptic to declare Mark's gospel inadmissible.

That is, if Wallace wishes to continue his farce of evaluating the gospels by the standard of modern American law; a trick he learned from Simon Greenleaf's similar 19th century effort.

Wallace, since you are so hot-to-trot about using American legal principles to evaluate the gospels, your inability to show exactly where Peter's input begins and ends in the Markan material, justifies excluding this "testimony" since we don't know whether something we read therein is from Peter, Mark, or other source Mark used, or something added by a later redactor. 

That later redactors can screw things up sufficiently to make it difficult to figure out what the original said, is clear from the controversy over the "long ending" of Mark.  It is likely a forgery, but it still managed to infect most of the manuscripts in a way sufficiently thorough as to enable a minority of Christian scholars today to make a cause for their authenticity that would sound convincing to somebody not already familiar with the evidence..

If you were being prosecuted for murder on the basis of a written affidavit of a now-dead person, whose various assertions about you and your crime were legitimately subject to the level of authorship and source controversy now plaguing Mark's gospel, you'd be screaming your head off that such affidavit is more prejudicial than probative for its tendency to confuse the jury on who exactly is making the assertions.  You'd be making a motion to have such affidavit rendered inadmissible.
Mark’s Gospel is of particular importance due to its early dating and relationship to the other Gospels. In spite of the fact Mark isn’t mentioned as an eyewitness in any of the Gospel accounts, there are many good reasons to accept his authorship and regard his Gospel as an accurate record of the life, ministry, death and resurrection of Jesus. The repeated and unanimous testimony of the early Church describes Mark’s Gospel as an accurate record of Peter’s teaching, captured faithfully by Mark acting as Peter’s scribe.
 The early church was also unanimous that Matthew and Luke were written before Mark, a position you and most other Christian scholars now disagree with.  So apparently, "unanimous church tradition" isn't quite as powerful as you'd like the reader to believe.
Papias, Irenaeus, Justin Martyr, Clement of Alexandria, Eusebius, and Tertullian attribute the Gospel to Mark, and Mark is also described as the author in the Muratorian Fragment and the Anti-Marcionite Prologues.
I don't have a problem with Mark writing the gospel.  I have a problem with the idea that any of his specific statements came from the mouth of Peter.  Here's one reason why:

Assuming, as most Christian scholars do, that Matthew used Mark as a source, why is Matthew's version of Peter's confession and Jesus' answer thereto, far longer than Mark's account?

Mark 8
Matthew 16
27 Jesus went out, along with His disciples, to the villages of Caesarea Philippi; and on the way He questioned His disciples, saying to them,

"Who do people say that I am?"
 28 They told Him, saying, "John the Baptist; and others say Elijah; but others, one of the prophets."

  29 And He continued by questioning them, "But who do you say that I am?"

 Peter answered and said to Him, "You are the Christ."
















  30 And He warned them to tell no one about Him.

 31 And He began to teach them that the Son of Man must suffer many things and be rejected by the elders and the chief priests and the scribes, and be killed, and after three days rise again.
13 Now when Jesus came into the district of Caesarea Philippi, He was asking His disciples,


"Who do people say that the Son of Man is?"
 14 And they said, "Some say John the Baptist; and others, Elijah; but still others, Jeremiah, or one of the prophets."

 15 He said to them, "But who do you say that I am?"

 16 Simon Peter answered, "You are the Christ,


the Son of the living God."

 17 And Jesus said to him, "Blessed are you, Simon Barjona, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but My Father who is in heaven.
 18 "I also say to you that you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build My church; and the gates of Hades will not overpower it.
 19 "I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven; and whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven."

 20 Then He warned the disciples that they should tell no one that He was the Christ.

 21 From that time Jesus began to show His disciples that He must go to Jerusalem, and suffer many things from the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and be raised up on the third day.



 What's more likely?

That Peter also said "the son of the living God" part, yet Mark knowingly "chose to exclude" that part?

That Jesus replied with all the commentary seen in Matthew's account, but that Mark, knowing that was Jesus' full reply, knowingly "chose to exclude" this?

Or that Matthew, the later author, is creatively using fiction to embellish the earlier primitive tradition in ways that enhance the theological significance of this conversation between Peter and Jesus? 

Regardless of whether a Christian can show that they themselves can be reasonable to reject this theory, skeptics can be reasonable to conclude that if Mark knew Peter had said "the son of the Living God", Mark would never have "chosen to exclude" this.  So the more you credit Mark to Peter, the more you credit Peter with giving Mark an unbelievably shortened version of events.
Before we begin to look at some of the internal evidences for Peter’s connection to the Gospel of Mark, we ought to recognize Peter and Mark’s relationship as it is described in the New Testament. Mark is traditionally considered to be the “John Mark” mentioned as a companion of Paul in the Book of Acts. If this is true, Mark was a cousin of Barnabas (Colossians 4:10) and originally fell from favor with Paul when he failed to continue on an evangelistic journey with Paul and Barnabas as a young man. This caused the two older men to separate; Barnabas continued on with Mark and Paul continued with Silas (Acts 15:37-40).
 Correct, and the fact that Paul disqualified Mark from further ministry due to previously abandoning the mission work, continues to stand as legitimate impeachment against Mark's integrity.  That is, Mark may have authored a gospel and become involved in apostolic activities, but he regarded the whole business as something less than exciting or transforming, a bit of apathy we would hardly expect if any apostles he was running around with were doing any of the miracles the book of Acts ascribes to them (Acts 5::15, 8:13, 15:12).  Here's the Acts 15 story on why Paul discredited Mark from future mission work:
36 After some days Paul said to Barnabas, "Let us return and visit the brethren in every city in which we proclaimed the word of the Lord, and see how they are."
 37 Barnabas wanted to take John, called Mark, along with them also.
 38 But Paul kept insisting that they should not take him along who had deserted them in Pamphylia and had not gone with them to the work.
 39 And there occurred such a sharp disagreement that they separated from one another
, and Barnabas took Mark with him and sailed away to Cyprus.
 40 But Paul chose Silas and left, being committed by the brethren to the grace of the Lord. (Acts 15:36-40 NAU)
Wallace continues:
Mark eventually became a close associate of Peter; this is evident in two pieces of Biblical evidence. First, it appears Peter was part of a Christian group in Jerusalem that met in Mark’s home. When Peter miraculously escaped from jail (assisted by the angel of the Lord), he returned to this group to tell them the good news:

Acts 12:12-14
When this had dawned on him, he went to the house of Mary the mother of John, also called Mark, where many people had gathered and were praying. Peter knocked at the outer entrance, and a servant girl named Rhoda came to answer the door. When she recognized Peter’s voice, she was so overjoyed she ran back without opening it and exclaimed, “Peter is at the door!”
 Which is precisely why Mark's failure to mention the Jerusalem resurrection appearances (Acts 1:1-3) is a silence that screams.  Had Mark been a true convert to the faith and was a close personal friend of Peter, it is highly unlikely that either

a) Peter would keep the Acts 1:3 resurrection appearances from Mark or
b) that Mark would know of them but choose to avoid mentioning them.

Mark's allegedly living in Jerusalem would make it reasonable to suspect that, if Acts 1:3 is telling the truth, Mark would both know about AND desire to mention these Jerusalem resurrection appearances.

Even if we allow everything desired by the minority of scholars who press for the authenticity of Mark's long ending, still, Mark's "long ending" doesn't mention anything about 40 days of resurrection appearances, still less anything about 40-days worth of kingdom-of-God teachings from the risen Christ,  when we'd rather suspect that Mark would think the risen Christ's teachings about the kingdom of God (Acts 1:3) were at least equally as important, if not more important, than the teachings on the same subject which Christ gave before dying (Mark 1-15).
Peter appears to have been well known to Mark, and over the course of time, Mark became even closer to Peter as he ministered throughout Asia Minor and Rome. By the time Peter wrote his first epistle, Mark had become like a son to him:

1 Peter 5:13
She who is in Babylon, chosen together with you, sends you her greetings, and so does my son Mark.
Mark was a common name, you don't really know whether the author traditionally associated with the gospel is the exact "Mark" mentioned in that epistle.  Critics can be reasonable to doubt this or call it inconclusive, whether you can conform the evidence to your own theory or not.
In fact, Mark’s relationship with Peter seems to parallel Luke’s relationship to Paul. Every time Paul mentions Luke, he also mentions Mark (see Colossians 4:10-14, 2 Timothy 4:11, and Philemon verse 24). Mark and Luke clearly knew each other, and this relationship as “co-Gospel authors” is consistent with Luke’s opening statement in the Gospel of Luke:

Luke 1:1-4
Inasmuch as many have undertaken to compile an account of the things accomplished among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and servants of the word, it seemed fitting for me as well, having investigated everything carefully from the beginning, to write it out for you in consecutive order, most excellent Theophilus; so that you may know the exact truth about the things you have been taught.
 Except for one small problem:  Most Christian scholars say Luke used Mark's gospel as a textual source to some degree, but Luke gives the false impression in his Preface that he relied ONLY on "eyewitness" testimony, because he doesn't mention any other source except eyewitnesses.
Luke clearly describes himself as a careful investigator rather than a firsthand eyewitness to the life of Jesus. He also said he had access to the eyewitnesses and those who received the testimony of these witnesses.
 No, his preface does not express or imply that he had access to those who received the testimony of the eyewitnesses.  Even if such fact could be shown from other evidence, all that matters is what impression Luke intended to give about his sources.  We need not speculate why so many fundamentalist scholars continually talk about Luke interviewing "eyewitnesses".
This would, of course, have included Mark, a man with whom he obviously had repeated contact (according to Paul’s letters). Luke curiously described his account as being written “in consecutive order,” a meaningful statement when you consider what Papias said about Mark’s Gospel:

“Mark became Peter’s interpreter and wrote accurately all that he remembered, not, indeed, in order, of the things said and done by the Lord.”
 What you don't tell the reader is that other inerrantist Christian scholars discount the "consecutive order" or "chronological order" interpretation, in favor of one that says Luke was talking about writing in "logical" order:
To write an orderly account. The exact meaning of “orderly” is uncertain. It can refer to a temporal (Acts 3:24), geographical (18:23), or literary-logical sequence (11:4). The fact that Peter in 11:15 stated that the Spirit came upon Cornelius as he began to speak, whereas in 10:44–45 the Spirit came after Peter had spoken for some time, indicates that the “order” Luke was referring to was a logical rather than a chronological one.
Stein, R. H. (2001, c1992). Vol. 24: Luke (electronic ed.). Logos Library System;
The New American Commentary (Page 65). Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.
Wallace continues:
In the opening lines of his Gospel, Luke appears to be acknowledging Mark as a source who had direct contact with the eyewitnesses, distinguishing his Gospel from Mark’s on the basis of its orderly format.
 Sorry, Luke's preface says nothing about his alleged used of secondary sources.  And should you trifle that ancient historians might have viewed second-hand sources as having the same probative value as first-hand sources, your happiness about the "eyewitness" nature of the gospels must wane accordingly.  Or else your continuing to evaluate the gospels via the modern American court system will make it clear how you prioritize marketing Jesus above the less attractive scholarly truth.
In addition, Luke quotes Mark more than any other source, repeating or quoting entire passages offered by Mark (350 verses from Mark appear in Luke’s gospel).
Which is precisely why Luke's admission to using "eyewitnesses" as sources is so problematic.  If you got most of your story from second-hand sources, would you tell others that you relied on "eyewitnesses" and avoid mentioning you also used hearsay?  Hopefully not.
Luke recognized Mark’s relationship with Peter, much like his own with Paul, and considered Mark to be a reliable source.
Not true.  Mark 4:38 says:
 38 Jesus Himself was in the stern, asleep on the cushion; and they woke Him and said to Him, "Teacher, do You not care that we are perishing?" (Mk. 4:38 NAU)
When Luke found this in Mark, he changed the disciple's reaction so it was less accusatory than the original:
 24 They came to Jesus and woke Him up, saying, "Master, Master, we are perishing!" And He got up and rebuked the wind and the surging waves, and they stopped, and it became calm. (Lk. 8:24 NAU)
You say Luke found Mark a reliable source?  Maybe that's why inerrantist Christian scholars admit Luke "toned down" Mark's apparently too-candid assertions:
The disciples’ question strongly rebukes Jesus and is another example of Mark’s candor, which Matt 8:25 and Luke 8:24 tone down.
Brooks, J. A. (2001, c1991). Vol. 23: Mark (electronic e.). Logos Library System;
The New American Commentary (Page 87). Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.
Wallace continues:
On the basis of the relationship between Mark and Peter, it is reasonable to conclude the testimony of history accurately describes Mark’s connection to the Apostle. Mark acted as a scribe for Peter and recorded his teaching and preaching in his Gospel.
 But on the basis of the counter-arguments I've given here, Mark's relationship to Peter would be moot even if all biblical descriptions of it were 100% accurate. 

Finally, that Mark is a record of Peter's preaching is suspicious in light of the fact that none of the apostles in Acts give their audiences even one Christ-saying that appears in the gospels, a matter wholly at odds with the idea that the numerous Christ sayings in Mark show us the content of Peter's preaching.

The same is true for Paul.  Despite the allegedly risen Christ saying the gospel to the Gentiles was the exact same thing he taught the original apostles (Matthew 28:20, the part of the Great Commission that most Christians forget), Paul clearly did not find the actual words of Jesus to be necessary to the gospel, contradicting the viewpoint on the subject held by all 4 gospel authors, who clearly think Jesus' actual words are an essential part of the Gentile gospel.

In conclusion, the hypothesis that Peter stated all of the things recorded in Mark's gospel, is absurd, and yet once it is granted that Mark used otherwise unknown sources beyond Peter, it becomes reasonable for critics to deny that Mark's gospel is "based" on "eyewitness" testimony.  

If you were prosecuted for murder in court on the basis of an affidavit that had as many source and authorship problems as Mark's gospel does, suddenly, you'd find the bible-skeptic's skepticism to be reasonable, and you'd scream your head off that such a problematic document cannot enable a jury to reasonably decide who said what, or to decide the necessary credibility issues.  You'd seek a court order declaring such affidavit inadmissible, and so do we. 

Or you can keep fantasizing that evaluating the gospels with modern American court rules is a fun way to exploit religion for profit.  Cool marketing gimmick?  Yes.  Convincing case?  Not in the least. 

Monday, June 4, 2018

Cold Case Christianty: The case for justifying skepticism toward the eyewitness status of the gospel authors

This is my reply to an article by J. Warner Wallace entitled



I’m often challenged about status of the Gospels as eyewitness accounts of the life, ministry, death and resurrection of Jesus.
 And you always ignore direct challenges from skeptics to do comprehensive written or live debates about the subjects in your books.  Apparently, good marketers know that a sale is more likely to be made if the presentation is short, sweet, one-sided, and assures the reader that what they already believe, turns out to be defensible.   I see no difference between you and a Mormon apologist speaking in a Mormon church about how Jerald and Sandra Tanner got it all wrong. 
Many skeptics reject the eyewitness authority of these accounts, even though the early Church selected and embraced the canonical Gospels based primarily on the eyewitness authority of their authors.
There is no reason to think that the earliest of the church fathers from Irenaeus to Jerome were doing anything more in assigning names to the gospel authors, than uncritically passing down tradition, or what they heard from their own teachers.  3rd century Origen is one example:
  Concerning the four Gospels which alone are uncontroverted in the Church of God under heaven, I have learned by tradition that the Gospel according to Matthew, who was at one time a publican and afterwards an Apostle of Jesus Christ, was written first; and that he composed it in the Hebrew tongue and published it for the converts from Judaism. The second written was that according to Mark, who wrote it according to the instruction of Peter, who, in his General Epistle, acknowledged him as a son, saying, "The church that is in Babylon, elect together with you, salutes you; and so does Mark my son." 1 Peter 5:13 And third, was that according to Luke, the Gospel commended by Paul, which he composed for the converts from the Gentiles. Last of all, that according to John.
 Indeed...how else would the church fathers of the 2nd century and forward have known such things, given that they lived after the apostles died?  Email?

If you wish to say Papias is an exception and got his authorship information straight from an original apostle/elder, be prepared to also admit that he also got straight from an original apostle weird stories about grapes talking to people.  You will remain on the front-line with Papias and stand shoulder to shoulder with him.  If he goes down, you go down.  I've already debated Monte Shanks, author of Papias and the New Testament, the latest and best defense of the conservative Christian view on Papias.
Some skeptics argue the Gospels were never even intended to be seen as eyewitness testimony, in spite of the fact the earliest students of the apostles (and first Church leaders) repeated the content of the Gospels in their own letters, affirming the eyewitness status of the Gospels.
Probably because those skeptics have good reasons to suspect that there are serious credibility problems with the post-apostolic fathers. Shall we start with Ignatius, most of whose epistles are forgeries?  Shall we start with Irenaeus, who thought Jesus' earthly ministry lasted 10 years and that he died at 50 years old?

Or does the sense of fulfillment and purpose in life one gets by attending church regularly, outweigh any scholarly trifle some skeptic might raise?
It might be helpful, therefore, to review the context in which the Gospel events were first observed, recorded and transmitted in the 1st Century:
No, it wouldn't be helpful, not to your case. Obviously Jesus' mother and brothers were eyewitnesses to his earthly ministry, yet they drew the conclusion he was insane, they tried to take custody of him and put an end to his public ministry, and they didn't believe his claims during that ministry:
 20 And He came home, and the crowd gathered again, to such an extent that they could not even eat a meal.
 21 When His own people heard of this, they went out to take custody of Him; for they were saying, "He has lost His senses."   (Mk. 3:20-21 NAU)
 Inerrantist Christian scholars admit the obvious:


3:21 In the Greek text the subject of the first two clauses is literally “those with him.” The KJV and RSV (1st ed.) interpret this to mean “his friends,” the NASB and NKJV “his own people,” and the RSV (2nd ed.), NRSV, NEB, REB, and NIV “his family.” In view of vv. 31–32 the last of these is certainly correct. The idea that Jesus’ family opposed him troubled some ancient copyists who changed the text to read, “When the scribes and the rest heard.” The concern of Jesus’ family was not likely limited to his physical needs (v. 20); they probably were more concerned about the family’s reputation because in their estimation Jesus was acting in a fanatical and even insane way. The same verb is used in Acts 26:24 and 2 Cor 5:13 and means literally to stand outside of oneself. The verb translated “to take charge” means to arrest in 6:17; 12:12; 14:1, etc. Evidently they intended to seize Jesus and force him to return to Nazareth with them.
Brooks, J. A. (2001, c1991). Vol. 23: Mark (electronic e.). Logos Library System; The New American Commentary (Page 73). Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.

John 7:5, speaking about what Jesus' brothers believed as late as about a third of the way into his earthly ministry, says they didn't believe in him:
1 After these things Jesus was walking in Galilee, for He was unwilling to walk in Judea because the Jews were seeking to kill Him.
 2 Now the feast of the Jews, the Feast of Booths, was near.
 3 Therefore His brothers said to Him, "Leave here and go into Judea, so that Your disciples also may see Your works which You are doing.
 4 "For no one does anything in secret when he himself seeks to be known publicly. If You do these things, show Yourself to the world."
 5 For not even His brothers were believing in Him. (Jn. 7:1-5 NAU)
  Inerrantist Christian scholars admit the obvious, but also refrain from giving any believable explanation for this otherwise shocking bit of opposition toward Jesus by his own family:
It is apparent from the text that Jesus’ brothers were not yet to be numbered among the believers. Several writers have seen a confirmation in the similar lack of belief on the part of the brothers in the Markan account at 3:21, 31–35.7 The brothers’ failure to believe in him (John 7:5) was accompanied by a challenge to make evident his messiahship by some public display (7:3–4). In John the demand for signs or public display is an evidence that such persons have an inadequate relation to Jesus, and as a result they are to be reckoned among those who stand condemned (3:18). There is little middle ground in this Gospel for fence-sitters. As far as any believing on the brothers’ part is concerned, it is clear that such would have to await the postresurrection period when, for example, James, the brother of the Lord, became a leader in the Jerusalem church (cf. Gal 1:19 particularly and also Acts 12:17; 15:13; 21:8). The brothers’ argument here that he ought to leave Galilee and do his works in Judea should not be understood as though Jesus had not done any works in Jerusalem (cf. 5:2–9). Instead, it should be understood from their point of view that it was an appropriate festive time for a messianic revelation and that if he was a messianic figure, then he ought to focus his works where they would gain the most attention.
Borchert, G. L. (2001, c1996). Vol. 25A: John 1-11 (electronic ed.).
Logos Library System; The New American Commentary (Page 280).
Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.
Maybe Wallace can explain how these eyewitnesses, with their very special position of knowing Jesus more intimately than the crowds (they were his immediate family) could be so opposed to his earthly ministry...especially under Wallace's presupposition that during that ministry, Jesus' miracles were numerous, genuinely supernatural, and noised abroad by most of those who benefited from them?

Another question:  Is the mother of Jesus as described in Mark 3:21 as having concluded Jesus had gone insane, the same mother of Jesus whom recieved all those divine confirmations during her pregnancy that this Jesus was the true Son of God (nativity stories in Matthew and Luke)?

Gee, maybe the mother Mary in Mark 3:21 was his step-mother?  After all, no excuse can be too stupid when bible inerrancy is on the chopping block, amen?

Wallace continues:
Eyewitness Authority Is Inherent to the Gospels
The Gospel accounts are written as historical narratives.
Not according to conservative Christian inerrantist Craig Evans, who has infamously remarked on more than one occasion that Jesus did not say many of the things put in his mouth by the gospel of John.  Evans thinks the genre of John is not the same as that of the Synoptics.

In this he is joined by 2nd century Clement of Alexandria, who called John a  "spiritual" gospel, and defined it as concerned with something other than the "external facts" the way the Synoptics were. From Eusebius, Church History:
 Chapter XIV. The Scriptures Mentioned by Him.
Again, in the same books, Clement gives the tradition of the earliest presbyters, as to the order of the Gospels, in the following manner:  The Gospels containing the genealogies, he says, were written first. The Gospel according to Mark had this occasion. As Peter had preached the Word publicly at Rome, and declared the Gospel by the Spirit, many who were present requested that Mark, who had followed him for a long time and remembered his sayings, should write them out. And having composed the Gospel he gave it to those who had requested it. When Peter learned of this, he neither directly forbade nor encouraged it. But, last of all, John, perceiving that the external facts had been made plain in the Gospel, being urged by his friends, and inspired by the Spirit, composed a spiritual Gospel. This is the account of Clement.
 Clearly "spiritual" here is being contrasted with "external facts" as laid out in the Synoptics, therefore, if John was a "spiritual gospel", it was a gospel that was trying to do something other than set forth the "external facts", a job John knew had already been accomplished 3 times in the past by 3 prior authors.
 While that doesn't mean John's gospel is 100% fiction, it does indeed say that John was concerned to do more than merely set out "external facts", which means John's author was concerned to provide more in that gospel than simply what Jesus said and did.

Craig Evans thus is not wrong in disagreeing with you and holding that the genre of John's gospel is something other than "historical"...unless you wish to open Pandora's Box by speculating that 2nd century Clement got this wrong?  If so, we have to wonder how many other early church fathers...the ones you rely on throughout this article of yours, got issues of gospel authorship wrong?
The life of Jesus is intertwined with historical events locating it geographically and historically.
And the eyewitness on the stand said she was there and saw the crash as it occurred...so the jury has no choice except to believe her, because "eyewitness" equals "infallible".   Sure, you'll deny you are teaching this here, but that is the practical result of your generalized uncritical remarks that the gospels arise from eyewitness testimony.  For some reason, you seem to think this boots their historical credibility, when in fact that is insufficient to put the skeptic in the position of being intellectually compelled to find their claims true.
The Gospels repeatedly affirmed their own historical, eyewitness nature, mentioning key figures who served to validate the history of Jesus as eyewitnesses:

John 1:6-7
There came a man sent from God, whose name was John. He came as a witness, to testify about the Light, so that all might believe through him.

Eyewitness Authority Was Commissioned by Jesus
Jesus understood the eyewitness status of the Apostles. In fact, he commissioned them to grow the Kingdom on the basis of their eyewitness observations:
Which is precisely why apostle Paul, who aside from about 3 rather controversial references, is disqualified from the task of promoting the Gentile gospel, since he cares more about justifying his own theological speculations from the OT, than he cares about growing the Kingdom on the basis of eyewitnesses of Jesus' earthly ministry.  

If your pastor neglected Jesus' earthly ministry as often as Paul did, wouldn't you have a problem with that?
Luke 24:44-49
Now He said to them, “These are My words which I spoke to you while I was still with you, that all things which are written about Me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled.” Then He opened their minds to understand the Scriptures, and He said to them, “Thus it is written, that the Christ would suffer and rise again from the dead the third day, and that repentance for forgiveness of sins would be proclaimed in His name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem. You are witnesses of these things. And behold, I am sending forth the promise of My Father upon you; but you are to stay in the city until you are clothed with power from on high.”

Acts 1:6-8
So when they had come together, they were asking Him, saying, “Lord, is it at this time You are restoring the kingdom to Israel?” He said to them, “It is not for you to know times or epochs which the Father has fixed by His own authority; but you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; and you shall be My witnesses both in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and even to the remotest part of the earth.”

Eyewitness Authority Was Affirmed By the Gospel Authors
The authors of the Gospels proclaimed their authority as eyewitnesses (or as chroniclers of the eyewitnesses). While some skeptics have attempted to disassociate the Biblical statements from the Gospel authors to refute the authorship of the Gospels, the earliest believers embraced the traditional authorship of the eyewitnesses (and we can also make good circumstantial cases for the traditional authorship).
 No, you cannot make a good circumstantial case for traditional authorship.  You have been challenged by me, repeatedly, for the last couple of years, to make your best case within the context of a scholarly written debate.  Apparently you are too busy flying around the world appearing in 5 minute guest-spots on other peoples' tv and radio shows, to bother with little things like letting your readers see how well your stuff stands up to informed scrutiny, or letting them know the reasons why scholarly bible skeptics don't find your bells and whistles the least bit convincing.

But then again, you can market a book more effectively if you refuse to debate its merits publicly with informed critics.  And Lord knows, Christians are more apt to put their money into something that makes them feel good rather than something that challenges the basics of what they believe.
The Gospel authors (and their sources) repeatedly identified themselves as eyewitnesses:

1 Peter 5:1
Therefore, I exhort the elders among you, as your fellow elder and witness of the sufferings of Christ, and a partaker also of the glory that is to be revealed…
Nowhere do the Petrine epistles claim that the author saw the risen Christ.
2 Peter 1:16-17
For we did not follow cleverly devised tales when we made known to you the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, but we were eyewitnesses of His majesty.
And since people never lie, we have no choice but accept as true the testimony of anybody who says they are telling the truth.
1 John 1:1-3
What was from the beginning, what we have heard, what we have seen with our eyes, what we have looked at and touched with our hands, concerning the Word of Life – and the life was manifested, and we have seen and testify and proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and was manifested to us – what we have seen and heard we proclaim to you also, so that you too may have fellowship with us…
Nothing 1st John, 2nd John or 3rd John asserts the author saw the risen Christ.
John 21:24-25
This is the disciple who is testifying to these things and wrote these things, and we know that his testimony is true. And there are also many other things which Jesus did, which if they were written in detail, I suppose that even the world itself would not contain the books that would be written.
 I would argue that the author's intentionally hiding himself in less than clear language (i.e., a reason why most scholars deny John's authorship of the gospel now bearing his name) justifies turning away from his writings. The author was clearly interested in something other than setting out the facts and clearly identifying himself as the testifying witness.  If you were on trial for murder and the prosecutor's witness was plagued by the same ambiguities of testimony and identity that attend the author of John, you'd be screaming your head off for the judge to excuse the witness and dismiss the case for lack of evidence.
Luke 1:1-4
Inasmuch as many have undertaken to compile an account of the things accomplished among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and servants of the word, it seemed fitting for me as well, having investigated everything carefully from the beginning, to write it out for you in consecutive order, most excellent Theophilus; so that you may know the exact truth about the things you have been taught.
Luke was a liar because most Christian scholars agree he used substantial portions of Mark's gospel text...yet for sources he claims nothing other than eyewitness testimony, thus giving the false impression that all which he had to say originated in eyewitness testimony.  Lies are not restricted to factually false assertions, it is also lying to give a false impression.  Look it up in the dictionary.
Eyewitness Authority Was Confirmed By the First Believers
The early believers and Church Fathers accepted the Gospel accounts as eyewitness documents.
They also believed in lots of stupid crazy shit that impeaches their credibility so severely they'd be laughed off the witness stand.  Clement of Rome believed the fable of the phoenix bird resurrecting itself from its burned corpse to be true.  Irenaeus thought Jesus didn't die until he was in his 50's.  The basis on which these dudes drew conclusions about historical truth impeaches their general credibility in a way that cannot be mended by noting the places where they speak truthfully.
In fact, many Church fathers wrote about the Gospels. Papias, when describing the authorship of the Gospel of Mark, said, “Mark, having become the interpreter of Peter, wrote down accurately, though not indeed in order, whatsoever he remembered of the things said or done by Christ.”
Even assuming Mark wrote Mark, most Christian scholars agree this was the earliest gospel, and that it ended at 16:8, some later hand, not Mark, was responsible for the resurrection narrative or the "long ending" (16:9-20).

If the Christian scholarly consensus be accurate, the earliest written gospel had nothing to say about a risen Christ appearing to anybody, and if the "man" the women meet inside the tomb (16:1-8) is actually an angel as inerrantists would require by comparison to Luke 24:4, then Mark is completing his story with an angelic proclamation of the good news that that Jesus has risen from the dead, and the "fear" of the women would then be reverential awe, and as such, ending at 16:8 constitutes ending on a positive note, not a negative one, leaving N.T. Wright and other frustrated fundamentalist scholars no proper motive to trifle that Mark would surely have written more.

At that point, the only people who have a problem with Mark not mentioning resurrection appearances are apologists who became desensitized to such a fitting quick ending of a gospel by constantly reading the other 3 gospels and their more richly embellished later additions with an eye toward "bible inerrancy".  But if you read Mark with the mindset of the early church to whom it was originally addressed, the lack of resurrection appearances constitutes nothing.  The angelic proclamation of Jesus as risen from the dead constitutes the best news.
In addition, Papias, Ireneaus, Origen and Jerome affirmed the authorship of Matthew’s Gospel by the tax collector described in the account, written for the Hebrews in his native dialect and translated as he was able.
No, not as "he" was able.  Papias says Matthew wrote the oracles in the Hebrew language and "everybody" interpreted them as THEY were able, so says inerrantist Christian scholar Craig Blomberg and others:

But whereas the internal evidence of the Greek text of Matthew strongly suggests dependence on Mark, early Christian traditions consistently attributed the oldest Gospel to Matthew. Yet they equally maintained consistently that Matthew wrote his Gospel in a Hebraic language (Hebrew or Aramaic). The oldest of these testimonies is ascribed to Papias (ca. A.D. 100–150), though preserved only as a quotation in Eusebius (H.E. 3.39.14–16), which is usually translated roughly as, “Matthew composed his Gospel in the Hebrew language, and everyone translated as they were able.”
Blomberg, C. (2001, c1992). Vol. 22: Matthew (electronic ed.).
Logos Library System; The New American Commentary (Page 39).
Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.
 In Book Three of his History of the Church (3.39.16), after recording Papias’ statement of the testimony of John the Elder concerning the Gospel of Mark, Eusebius adds this comment of Papias concerning Matthew: “Matthew for his part compiled the oracles in the Hebrew [Aramaic] dialect and every person translated them as he was able
Hagner, D. A. (2002). Vol. 33A: Word Biblical Commentary : Matthew 1-13.
Word Biblical Commentary (Page xliv). Dallas: Word, Incorporated.

Hence, Papias does not say Matthew did the translating or that he "translated as he was able", but...nice attempt at trying to make it appear that Matthew was himself responsible for the Greek version of his gospel.  

I can understand why you engaged in that bit of subterfuge...you've endured my prior argument that while there is abundant patristic testimony that Matthew wrote in Hebrew language, there is NONE saying Matthew wrote in Greek language, putting at a decisive disadvantage most Christian apologists who try to associate Matthew closer to our exclusively Greek manuscripts of that gospel by saying the tax-collector surely was bilingual and "could have" written a second original in Greek.

If that was the historical truth, we would have expected that because the early fathers are willing to tell the reader what language Matthew wrote in, they would have also said he wrote in Greek, had they any reason to think that was the historical truth.

They never do. In which case the historical testimony is that Matthew authored something in Hebrew, the gospel we know by that name comes to use exclusively from the Greek language manuscripts, and this significantly interferes with the apologist's desire to credit Matthew with the Greek version.
Eyewitness Authority Was Foundational to the Growth of the Church
It really shouldn’t surprise us that the authority of the Gospels was grounded in their eyewitness status. The eyewitness authority of the Apostles was key to the expansion of the early Church.
Which is precisely why apostle Paul is a heretic. Paul failed the "stay with Jesus from the beginning of his earthly ministry" criteria that Peter insisted on when finding it necessary to replaced the dead Judas with a replacement apostle # 12:
 16 "Brethren, the Scripture had to be fulfilled, which the Holy Spirit foretold by the mouth of David concerning Judas, who became a guide to those who arrested Jesus.
 17 "For he was counted among us and received his share in this ministry."
 18 (Now this man acquired a field with the price of his wickedness, and falling headlong, he burst open in the middle and all his intestines gushed out.
 19 And it became known to all who were living in Jerusalem; so that in their own language that field was called Hakeldama, that is, Field of Blood.)
 20 "For it is written in the book of Psalms, 'LET HIS HOMESTEAD BE MADE DESOLATE, AND LET NO ONE DWELL IN IT'; and, 'LET ANOTHER MAN TAKE HIS OFFICE.'
 21 "Therefore it is necessary that of the men who have accompanied us all the time that the Lord Jesus went in and out among us--
 22 beginning with the baptism of John until the day that He was taken up from us-- one of these must become a witness with us of His resurrection
."
 23 So they put forward two men, Joseph called Barsabbas (who was also called Justus), and Matthias.
 24 And they prayed and said, "You, Lord, who know the hearts of all men, show which one of these two You have chosen
 25 to occupy this ministry and apostleship from which Judas turned aside to go to his own place."
 26 And they drew lots for them, and the lot fell to Matthias; and he was added to the eleven apostles. (Acts 1:16-26 NAU)
 Peter would hardly have insisted on this criteria, had he agreed with Paul that true apostleship only requires a person to have 'seen' the risen Jesus.  And Peter's belief that somebody needed to replace Judas so as to complete the full number of 12 apostles appears to preempt any notion that he would approve of anybody outside the 12 from claiming apostolic status.  Why did Peter think apostle-candidates had to have been with Jesus since the days of John the Baptist, if that criteria wasn't required for a man to claim the title of apostle?
The apostles were unified in the manner in which they proclaimed Christ.
No, the risen Jesus defines the gospel as the things he had taught to the original 12 apostles, Matthew 28:20, something Matthew himself obviously took to mean the things Jesus said and did before the crucifixion.

Apostle Paul doesn't give two shits about the things Jesus said and did before the crucifixion, and aside from a few absurdly trifling references in his epistles to things that can also be found in written gospels, he clearly prioritized much more his own theological speculations and how these could be proven by quoting the Old Testament.  Paul was not a true apostle to the Gentiles, if we keep in mind the risen Christ's definition of the Gentile-gospel in Matthew 28:20.
They repeatedly identified themselves, first and foremost, as eyewitnesses:

Acts 2:23-24, 32
“This man (Jesus) was handed over to you by God’s set purpose and foreknowledge; and you, with the help of wicked men, put him to death by nailing him to the cross. But God raised him from the dead, freeing him from the agony of death, because it was impossible for death to keep its hold on him… God has raised this Jesus to life, and we are all witnesses of the fact.”

Acts 3:15
“You killed the author of life, but God raised him from the dead. We are witnesses of this.”

Acts 4:20
“For we cannot help speaking about what we have seen and heard”

Acts 4:33
With great power the apostles continued to testify to the resurrection of the Lord Jesus, and much grace was upon them all.

Acts 10:39-42
“We are witnesses of everything he (Jesus) did in the country of the Jews and in Jerusalem. They killed him by hanging him on a tree, but God raised him from the dead on the third day and caused him to be seen. He was not seen by all the people, but by witnesses whom God had already chosen – by us who ate and drank with him after he rose from the dead. He commanded us to preach to the people and testify that he is the one whom God appointed as judge of the living and the dead.”
There you go again, pretending that once you establish they were "eyewitnesses", its game over, when as a former detective, you should know perfectly well that establishing a person as an eyewitness doesn't do jack shit toward demonstrating the truth of their claims. 

But no, you just say "they were eyewitnesses" and expect the skeptics to bow the faces to the ground in wild wonder at your superior argumentation skills.

Wallace, do you think the trial is over with when the eyewitness has spoken?  If not, why do you act like the trial of Christianity is over with as soon as your alleged eyewitnesses have spoken?
Eyewitness Authority Was Used to Validate New Testament Writings
Even Paul understood the importance of eyewitness authority. He continually referred to his own encounter with Jesus to establish the authenticity of his office and writings.
Correct.  What he didn't do is show fulfillment of the criteria for apostleship that Peter demanded in Acts 1, to repeat:
 21 "Therefore it is necessary that of the men who have accompanied us all the time that the Lord Jesus went in and out among us--
 22 beginning with the baptism of John until the day that He was taken up from us-- one of these must become a witness with us of His resurrection." (Acts 1:21-22 NAU)
 Paul hadn't been with Jesus "beginning with the baptism of John...".  Paul fails the test...unless you wish to involve yourself in more scandal by agreeing with J. Vernon McGree and other fundamentalist preachers who insist Peter's replacing Judas in Acts 1 was wrong and disapproved by God?  Yet Luke doesn't express or imply that Peter was wrong, which he likely would have, had choosing Matthias as apostle # 12 been a sinful blunder.   And if the replacing of Judas this way occurred around 34 a.d. the time Jesus died, and if Luke wrote Acts around 62 a.d, then he is writing out this non-critical account about Peter nearly 30 years after the fact...and still not expressing or implying that Peter was wrong.  Says Inerrantist Polhill: 
1:20b–22 In vv. 21–22 Peter laid down the qualifications for Judas’s replacement. He had to be one who had witnessed the entire ministry of Jesus from the time of his baptism by John to the ascension. Above all he had to have witnessed the resurrection appearances. Here we have the basic understanding of the apostles’ role in Acts. They were primarily “witnesses” to Jesus, eyewitnesses who could share his teaching and confirm his resurrection and ascension. As such, the role of apostle was limited to the Twelve. It was a unique, irreplaceable office (Eph 2:20; Rev 21:14). There could be no apostolic succession, since there were no further eyewitnesses to succeed them. 
Polhill, J. B. (2001, c1992). Vol. 26: Acts (electronic ed.).
Logos Library System; The New American Commentary (Page 93).
Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.
 Wallace continues:
Paul also directed his readers to other eyewitnesses who could corroborate his claims:

1 Corinthians 15:3-8
For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures, and that He appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve. After that He appeared to more than five hundred brethren at one time, most of whom remain until now, but some have fallen asleep; then He appeared to James, then to all the apostles; and last of all, as to one untimely born, He appeared to me also.
 Once again, Paul's definition of the gospel is

"how that Christ died for our sins, and that he was buried, 
and that he arose the third day according to the Scriptures..."

when in fact the risen Jesus' definition of the gospel required inclusion of all that Jesus had previously taught the disciples during the earthly ministry:

18 And Jesus came up and spoke to them, saying, 
"All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth.
 19 "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, 
baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,
 20 teaching them to observe all that I commanded you; 
and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age." (Matt. 28:18-20 NAU)

 Everybody knows that a) Paul nearly NEVER does what Matthew does, and evangelizes Gentiles by quoting something Jesus actually said or did, and b) Acts suspiciously follows Paul's example, and in its many mentions of the disciples evangelizing others, it never has them referring to his words or deeds with anywhere near the detail that Matthew himself had understood Matthew 28:20...the apostles in Acts merely refer to Jesus having been crucified and risen again. 

Despite Jesus also having had a significant Gentile ministry and thus likely having had something to say about whether male Gentile followers need be circumcised or not, again, when the apostles deal with the Judaizers on that question in Acts 15, nowhere do they cite to anything Jesus said or did to resolve the controversy.
The Gospels were written as eyewitness accounts within the long and rich evidential tradition of the early Christian community. The early Church placed a high value on the evidence provided by Jesus and the authority of the apostles as eyewitnesses.
They also placed a high value on the NT apocryphal gospels...and you'd rather not talk about where these Christians got the idea that god approved of them writing more books after the 2nd century.
The Gospels were accepted and affirmed due largely to their status as eyewitness accounts.
Correction, due largely to the early church believing these were eyewitness accounts.

Thursday, May 10, 2018

An Answer to Cerebral Faith's defense of apostolic gospel authorship

This is my reply to an article by "Cerebral Faith" entitled




Non-Christian scholars and laypeople alike have argued that we don't know or can't know who wrote the gospels.
 Inerrantist Christian scholar Craig Blomberg admits that Matthew's authorship is not demanded by the historical evidence, the best arguments do not amount to proof, and his own conclusion that Matthew is the best candidate, is presented "tentatively":


All of the evidence surveyed so far (“Structure,” “Theology,” etc.) allows for authorship by the apostle Matthew, but none of that evidence demands it…When all the evidence is amassed, there appears no conclusive proof for the apostle Matthew as author but no particularly cogent reason to deny this uniform early church tradition…But again we present these conclusions tentatively.
Blomberg, C. (2001, c1992). Vol. 22: Matthew (electronic ed.).
Logos Library System; The New American Commentary (Page 40).
Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.


The gospels are written anonymously, they say, and the names attached to them as we find them in our English Bibles were given to them as a scheme to make their content more credible.
Some skeptic opinion are too skeptical, yes.
After all, if the people writing these things were actually there, that boosts their credibility, doesn't it?
Not unless you think "eyewitness testimony" equals "truth".  But common experience tells us that not only do eyewitnesses lie or get facts wrong, they are willing to lie for their friends and spin facts to make the cause for which they testify appear more justified.
The Non-Christian charge that Matthew didn't really write Matthew,
You give a false impression that only non-Christians denigrate Matthew's authorship. Craig Keener is hailed by apologists as having written a Christian-miracle book that is a game changer in the debate about naturalism v. supernaturalism.  This obviously conservative inerrantist scholar admits the tradition of Matthew's authorship is not as reliable as in the case of other gospel authors:


Authorship. In contrast to, say, Paul’s letters, attributions of authorship in the Gospels are generally based on church tradition rather than evidence in the biblical text itself. Although this tradition is usually trustworthy, in the case of Matthew it may be less reliable (since the same tradition also claims that the original Gospel of Matthew was written in Hebrew, which is not true of our First Gospel). The authorship of the First Gospel is thus debated, but we will speak of “Matthew” for convenience’s sake and lack of a better designation.
 Keener, C. S., & InterVarsity Press. (1993).
The IVP Bible background commentary : New Testament.
Downers Grove, Ill.: InterVarsity Press.


that John didn't really write John, etc. These were written by people whose identities remain unknown and they attached the names to the gospels to make their claims about Jesus seem legit.
Again, some skeptical opinions are too skeptical.  I'm an atheist, but I don't say whatever Matthew originally wrote is entirely lost.  Perhaps much of what he originally wrote is present in modern canonical Matthew.  But that hardly justifies pretending that his resurrection-testimony is beefed up thereby.
However, I think there are some good reasons to believe that the names attached to these gospels really are the people who wrote them and that the skeptics are wrong.
Again, you misrepresent the issue as if skeptics are the only ones who deny Matthean authorship.  Roman Catholics are big on tradition, yet their scholars call Matthean authorship "untenable": 


The ancient tradition that the author was the disciple and apostle of Jesus named Matthew (see Mat 10:3) is untenable because the gospel is based, in large part, on the Gospel according to Mark (almost all the verses of that gospel have been utilized in this), and it is hardly likely that a companion of Jesus would have followed so extensively an account that came from one who admittedly never had such an association rather than rely on his own memories. The attribution of the gospel to the disciple Matthew may have been due to his having been responsible for some of the traditions found in it, but that is far from certain.  

The unknown author, whom we shall continue to call Matthew for the sake of convenience, drew not only upon the Gospel according to Mark but upon a large body of material (principally, sayings of Jesus) not found in Mark that corresponds, sometimes exactly, to material found also in the Gospel according to Luke.
The New American Bible
Confraternity of Christian Doctrine. Board of Trustees,
Catholic Church. National Conference of Catholic Bishops,
& United States Catholic Conference. Administrative Board. (1996, c1986)

This will not be an exhaustive treatment of the gospel authorship issue, but let me briefly mention three reasons we can believe in the traditional authorship of the gospels.

Reason 1: If people wanted to make up names for the authors of the 4 canonical gospels, they would most likely have chosen weightier names for them.

I have a question for people who say that the canonical gospels are forgeries with the names of the apostles attached to give their content credibility. If people wanted to make up names for the authors of the 4 canonical gospels, then why didn't they choose weightier names for them?
Did you ever notice the names Christians of the 2nd century and afterwardascribed to the apocryphal works?  Thomas, Andrew, Nicodemus, Bartholomew "Acts of Matthias"...neither the bible nor history say much about these figures either, yet for some reason the Christians who created these lies apparently thought ascribing them to such names would increase their popularity.  Consider that perhaps history doesn't tell you how awesome Matthew, Mark and Luke really were.
Names like Peter, Phillip, Mary, James, these names carry a lot of weight. But Mark and Luke weren't even part of the original 12 disciples, nor were they apostles.
I don't see any reason why a forger would have to have an extremist mindset and assume the best way to popularize his works is to ascribe only the most popular apostles to them.  
Matthew was, but he was a hated tax collector and therefore would have been a less likely candidate.
No, tax-collectors were not hated by Christians, and the gospel of Matthew is a Christian production.
I mean, you're writing a document to convince Jews that Jesus is the Messiah
Christian scholars are very divided on who the canonical gospel authors' originally intended audiences were.  Matthew is the only one for whom a predominantly Jewish audience is plausible. 
and you're going to make the author a person from a group of people the Jews were known to have an intense hatred for?
There is very little historical evidence that the gospel authors intended to write for outsiders. Their failure to clearly identify themselves sounds more like they were writing to those who already knew of and approved of them, than it sounds like they were trying to impress unbelievers.  John's theology is too high to take seriously his comment that he writes so that others will come to salvation (John 20:31), he is clearly writing to edify those who already embrace the faith and need to start being fed spiritual meat.
I don't think so. John was one of Jesus' "inner three", so he's the exception. I'll grant that John's name carries a lot of weight, but this "they-gave-them-names-to-make-the-documents-more-credible argument just simply doesn't work for the other three gospels.

If I were trying to make the canonical gospels more credible by attaching false authors to them, I would have named them things like "The Gospel of Peter", "The Gospel Of Mary", "The Gospel Of Thomas", or if you really wanted to induce credibility, "The Gospel Of Jesus". After all, who could be a better eyewitness to Jesus' life and teachings than Jesus Himself?
You are assuming that a forger in the 1st century would always "go for broke" given the fact that he was lying about everything and wanting to lend his writings apostolic authority.  I've shown above that there is no reason to suppose such a forger would only opt for the most popular names.  A forger would have been just as happy to publish under the name of a follower of an apostle.  I'm not arguing the canonical gospels are forgeries, I'm only demonstrating that your attempts to get rid of the forgery hypothesis are based on a misunderstanding of the way things were in the first and 2nd centuries.
. The canonical gospels don't bare these extremely weighty names.
"bear".
However, it's interesting that the apocryphal gospels do.
Yeah, you would find it interesting that the authors of the apocryphal gospels prioritize those among the original Christians that weren't the most popular.
And everyone knew these were forgeries because they were written until long after the apostles died (i.e into the late second, third, fourth, and even fifth centuries). That's one of the primary reasons they didn't make it into the canon.
You speak as if the early church was confident of which books were apostolic and which weren't. You might wish to consult 4th century Eusebius, the church historian, who, even more than 200 years after the apostles died, was admitting many books remained "disputed":


BOOK III, CHAPTER 3
The Epistles of the Apostles
One epistle of Peter, that called the first, is acknowledged as genuine. And this the ancient elders used freely in their own writings as an undisputed work. But we have learned that his extant second Epistle does not belong to the canon; yet, as it has appeared profitable to many, it has been used with the other Scriptures. The so-called Acts of Peter, however, and the Gospel which bears his name, and the Preaching and the Apocalypse, as they are called, we know have not been universally accepted, because no ecclesiastical writer, ancient or modern, has made use of testimonies drawn from them. But in the course of my history I shall be careful to show, in addition to the official succession, what ecclesiastical writers have from time to time made use of any of the disputed works, and what they have said in regard to the canonical and accepted writings, as well as in regard to those which are not of this class. Such are the writings that bear the name of Peter, only one of which I know to be genuine and acknowledged by the ancient elders. Paul's fourteen epistles are well known and undisputed. It is not indeed right to overlook the fact that some have rejected the Epistle to the Hebrews, saying that it is disputed by the church of Rome, on the ground that it was not written by Paul. But what has been said concerning this epistle by those who lived before our time I shall quote in the proper place. In regard to the so-called Acts of Paul, I have not found them among the undisputed writings.
But as the same apostle, in the salutations at the end of the Epistle to the Romans, has made mention among others of Hermas, to whom the book called The Shepherd is ascribed, it should be observed that this too has been disputed by some, and on their account cannot be placed among the acknowledged books; while by others it is considered quite indispensable, especially to those who need instruction in the elements of the faith. Hence, as we know, it has been publicly read in churches, and I have found that some of the most ancient writers used it. This will serve to show the divine writings that are undisputed as well as those that are not universally acknowledged.

BOOK III, CHAPTER 25
The Divine Scriptures that are accepted and those that are not
Since we are dealing with this subject it is proper to sum up the writings of the New Testament which have been already mentioned. First then must be put the holy quaternion of the Gospels; following them the Acts of the Apostles. After this must be reckoned the epistles of Paul; next in order the extant final former epistle of John, and likewise the epistle of Peter, must be maintained. After them is to be placed, if it really seem proper, the Apocalypse of John, concerning which we shall give the different opinions at the proper time. These then belong among the accepted writings. Among the disputed writings, which are nevertheless recognized by many, are extant the so-called epistle of James and that of Jude, also the second epistle of Peter, and those that are called the second and third of John, whether they belong to the evangelist or to another person of the same name. Among the rejected writings must be reckoned also the Acts of Paul, and the so-called Shepherd, and the Apocalypse of Peter, and in addition to these the extant epistle of Barnabas, and the so-called Teachings of the Apostles; and besides, as I said, the Apocalypse of John, if it seem proper, which some, as I said, reject, but which others class with the accepted books. And among these some have placed also the Gospel according to the Hebrews, with which those of the Hebrews that have accepted Christ are especially delighted. And all these may be reckoned among the disputed books. But we have nevertheless felt compelled to give a catalogue of these also, distinguishing those works which according to ecclesiastical tradition are true and genuine and commonly accepted, from those others which, although not canonical but disputed, are yet at the same time known to most ecclesiastical writers -- we have felt compelled to give this catalogue in order that we might be able to know both these works and those that are cited by the heretics under the name of the apostles, including, for instance, such books as the Gospels of Peter, of Thomas, of Matthias, or of any others besides them, and the Acts of Andrew and John and the other apostles, which no one belonging to the succession of ecclesiastical writers has deemed worthy of mention in his writings. And further, the character of the style is at variance with apostolic usage, and both the thoughts and the purpose of the things that are related in them are so completely out of accord with true orthodoxy that they clearly show themselves to be the fictions of heretics. Wherefore they are not to be placed even among the rejected writings, but are all of them to be cast aside as absurd and impious. Let us now proceed with our history.

 Eusebius is writing in the 4th century. Let's just say your confident language about how "everybody knew", overstates the case.
Reason 2: The early church is unanimous in their testimony that Matthew wrote Matthew, Mark wrote Mark, Luke wrote Luke, etc.
The early church is also unanimous that Matthew and Luke were written first, an opinion now rejected by the majority of Christian scholars, who adopt Marcan priority.  They are also unanimous that Matthew wrote his original in Hebrew, and most Christian scholars reject this as mistaken given that canonical Matthew derives solely from Greek and doesn't appear to be translation-Greek.
Papias (ca. AD 70-ca. 163) said that St. Pete was Mark's scribe.
I think you meant that Mark was St. Pete's scribe?
He said; "Mark, having become the interpreter of Peter, wrote down accurately, though not indeed in order, whatsoever he remembered of the things said or done by Christ."
But you don't consider the date of Papias nor the dispute between Eusebius and Irenaeus about exactly how close to the apostles Papias was in history.  
1 Irenaeus (ca. 115-ca. 202), a student of Ignatius and Polycarp (who were themselves students of the apostle John) wrote: "Mark, the disciple, and interpreter of Peter, did also hand down to us in writing what had been preached by Peter"
If we are to believe Irenaeus on this point because he was only one-generation removed from John the apostle, then wouldn't you have to, on the same basis, conclude that Irenaeus was being accurate in saying Jesus lived into his 50's?  From his Against Heresies, Book 2:



Chapter XXII.—The Thirty Aeons are Not Typified by the Fact that Christ Was Baptized in His Thirtieth Year: He Did Not Suffer in the Twelfth Month After His Baptism,
But Was More Than Fifty Years Old When He Died.
4. Being thirty years old when He came to be baptized, and then possessing the full age of a Master,145 He came to Jerusalem, so that He might be properly acknowledged146 by all as a Master. For He did not seem one thing while He was another, as those affirm who describe Him as being man only in appearance; but what He was, that He also appeared to be. Being a Master, therefore, He also possessed the age of a Master, not despising or evading any condition of humanity, nor setting aside in Himself that law which He had147 appointed for the human race, but sanctifying every age, by that period corresponding to it which belonged to Himself. For He came to save all through means of Himself—all, I say, who through Him are born again to God148 —infants,149 and children, and boys, and youths, and old men. He therefore passed through every age, becoming an infant for infants, thus sanctifying infants; a child for children, thus sanctifying those who are of this age, being at the same time made to them an example of piety, righteousness, and submission; a youth for youths, becoming an example to youths, and thus sanctifying them for the Lord. So likewise He was an old man for old men, that He might be a perfect Master for all, not merely as respects the setting forth of the truth, but also as regards age, sanctifying at the same time the aged also, and becoming an example to them likewise. Then, at last, He came on to death itself, that He might be “the first-born from the dead, that in all things He might have the pre-eminence,”150 the Prince of life,151 existing before all, and going before all.152
5. They, however, that they may establish their false opinion regarding that which is written, “to proclaim the acceptable year of the Lord,” maintain that He preached for one year only, and then suffered in the twelfth month. [In speaking thus], they are forgetful to their own disadvantage, destroying His whole work, and robbing Him of that age which is both more necessary and more honourable than any other; that more advanced age, I mean, during which also as a teacher He excelled all others. For how could He have had disciples, if He did not teach? And how could He have taught, unless He had reached the age of a Master? For when He came to be baptized, He had not yet completed His thirtieth year, but was beginning to be about thirty years of age (for thus Luke, who has mentioned His years, has expressed it: “Now Jesus was, as it were, beginning to be thirty years old,”153 when He came to receive baptism); and, [according to these men, ] He preached only one year reckoning from His baptism. On completing His thirtieth year He suffered, being in fact still a young man, and who had by no means attained to advanced age. Now, that the first stage of early life embraces thirty years,154 and that this extends onwards to the fortieth year, every one will admit; but from the fortieth andfiftieth year a man begins to decline towards old age, which our Lord possessed while He still fulfilled the office of a Teacher, even as the Gospel and all the elders testify; those who were conversant in Asia with John, the disciple of the Lord, [affirming] that John conveyed to them that information.155 And he remained among them up to the times of Trajan.156 Some of them, moreover, saw not only John, but the other apostles also, and heard the very same account from them, and bear testimony as to the [validity of] the statement. Whom then should we rather believe? Whether such men as these, or Ptolemaeus, who never saw the apostles, and who never even in his dreams attained to the slightest trace of an apostle?
6. But, besides this, those very Jews who then disputed with the Lord Jesus Christ have most clearly indicated the same thing. For when the Lord said to them, “Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day; and he saw it, and was glad,” they answered Him, “Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast Thou seen Abraham? ”157 Now, such language is fittingly applied to one who has already passed the age of forty, without having as yet reached his fiftieth year, yet is not far from this latter period. But to one who is only thirty years old it would unquestionably be said, “Thou art not yet forty years old.” For those who wished to convict Him of falsehood would certainly not extend the number of His years far beyond the age which they saw He had attained; but they mentioned a period near His real age, whether they had truly ascertained this out of the entry in the public register, or simply made a conjecture from what they observed that He was above forty years old, and that He certainly was not one of only thirty years of age.For it is altogether unreasonable to suppose that they were mistaken by twenty years, when they wished to prove Him younger than the times of Abraham. For what they saw, that they also expressed; and He whom they beheld was not a mere phantasm, but an actual being158 of flesh and blood. He did not then wont much of being fifty years old;159 and, in accordance with that fact, they said to Him, “Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast Thou seen Abraham? ”He did not therefore preach only for one year, nor did He suffer in the twelfth month of the year. For the period included between the thirtieth and the fiftieth year can never be regarded as one year…

Roberts, A., Donaldson, J., & Coxe, A. C. (1997). The Ante-Nicene Fathers Vol.I  : Translations of the writings of the Fathers down to A.D. 325. The apostolic fathers with Justin Martyr and Irenaeus. Oak Harbor: Logos Research Systems. Irenaeus, Against Heresies, 2:22:4-6, ANF



2 Clement of Alexandria likewise wrote that those who heard Peter's teachings "were not satisfied with merely a single hearing or with the unwritten teaching of the divine Gospel,
hence suggesting they were not true converts, since those filled by the Spirit already have what would be supplied by written words.
but with all sorts of entreaties they besought Mark, who was a follower of Peter and whose Gospel is extant, to leave behind with them in writing a record of the teaching passed on to them orally."
 What you don't tell the reader is that Eusebius presented Mark as writing only after buckling under pressure, it was not his initial desire to fulfill this church request:



BOOK II, CHAPTER 15
The Gospel according to Mark
And thus when the divine word had made its home among them, the power of Simon was quenched and immediately destroyed, together with the man himself. And so greatly did the splendor of piety illumine the minds of Peter's hearers that they were not satisfied with hearing once only, and were not content with the unwritten teaching of the divine Gospel, but with all sorts of entreaties they besought Mark, a follower of Peter, and the one whose Gospel is extant, that he would leave them a written monument of the doctrine which had been orally communicated to them. Nor did they cease until they had prevailed with the man, and had thus become the occasion of the written Gospel which bears the name of Mark.
 that's bad news for modern day idiots who think the gospel authors intended to write as they did.  Eusebius also says Matthew and John likewise wrote "only under pressure of necessity"
BOOK III, CHAPTER 24 The Order of the Gospels

And the rest of the followers of our Saviour, the twelve apostles, the seventy disciples, and countless others besides, were not ignorant of these things. Nevertheless, of all the disciples of the Lord, only Matthew and John have left us written memorials, and they, tradition says, were led to write only under the pressure of necessity.
 
3 These earlier church leaders and students of the apostles were in a position to know whether or not Mark authored the gospel of Mark and whether or not he got his information from Peter.
 The author of the gospel of Peter likely knew whether or not Peter authored it.
Time and time again, they affirm that the Gospel of Mark is indeed written by Mark and that Mark was acting as Peter's scribe.
 Even assuming apostolic authorship is correct, I don't see the gain.  You may as well say everything written by Jews who were in Hitler camps, is true. Well...do you believe the Nazi's made lampshades out of Jewish skin?
Regarding Matthew's gospel, In his Ecclesiastical History, the church historian Eusebius (A.D. 265-339) quotes Origen (A.D. 185-254), stating,

“Among the four Gospels, which are the only indisputable ones in the Church of God under heaven, I have learned by tradition that the first was written by Matthew, who was once a publician, but afterwards an apostle of Jesus Christ, and it was prepared for the converts from Judaism.”
that's right, he learned "by tradition", which is likely something a bit more fuzzy than critical investigation.
Irenaeus (A.D. 130-200), who was a student of Polycarp (A.D. 70-160), who in turn was a student of the apostle John, testifies that John wrote John.
He also said Jesus wasn't crucified until he became an old man.  Still impressed by how close Irenaeus was to John?
Furthermore, he asserts that it was written when John was in Ephesus and when he was well on in years. Irenaeus, for example, said "Further, they teach that John, the disciple of the Lord, indicated the first Ogdoad, expressing themselves in these words: John, the disciple of the Lord, wishing to set forth the origin of all things, so as to explain how the Father produced the whole, lays down a certain principle,—that, namely, which was first-begotten by God, which Being he has termed both the only-begotten Son and God, in whom the Father, after a seminal manner, brought forth all things." 4

Polycarp was a student of John, and Irenaeus was a student of Polycarp. This means they were in the best position of all to comment on whether John wrote the gospel of John.
 And the best friend of the gang member on trial for murder, who was there during the shooting, is also in the best position to know what really happened. Therefore, if he says his friend didn't do it, the prosecutor has no choice except to drop charges.
I can imagine Polycarp sitting at John's feet listening to John telling him all about what Jesus said and did, and then at the end John says "By the way, Polycarp. I'm currently writing a book on this. You'll be able to get it at Barnes and Noble in a few weeks".
I can also imagine the gang member, just before committing a murder, telling his friend "if the cops as you about it, just say I was with you the whole night drinking and watching tv!"
Reason 3: Forensic Statement Analysis
J. Warner Wallace
Oh fuck, are you kidding?
talks about this procedure in chapter 5 of his book Cold Case Christianity. Forensic Statement Analysis (FSA) is "the careful study and analysis of the words (both written and spoken) provided by a suspect, witness, or victim. The purpose of Forensic Statement Analysis is to determine truthfulness or deception on the part of the person making the statement." 5 FSA is the art of hanging on every word that a person says. In the work of a homicide detective like Wallace, when they are interviewing witnesses about the events of a crime, detectives carefully scrutinize and dissect every word the witness includes in his or her statement to see if it provides them with any clues about their involvement or lack thereof in the crime. In Wallace' book, he provides two examples of this. In the first example, Wallace recalls interviewing a man whom he called "Scott" about the murder of a young woman in his city in 1981. His question, the same as it was to the other witnesses he interviewed, was "How did you feel about this woman's death?" Scott's response was surprising. "Well, I was sorry to see her dead, you know. We didn't always get along, but it's never good to see anyone die". The detectives knew that the killers stood over the victim's body and made sure she was dead by nudging her. So, Wallace wrote, "it could be reasonably inferred that the killer 'saw her dead'". Of course, this isn't enough to convict someone of murder. But it is a clue that pointed them in the right direction. The statement was only one piece in a large collection of evidence that ended up indicting him.

In J. Warner Wallace's investigation of the gospels' reliability as eyewitness testimony, he applied Forensic Statement Analysis to the text to determine whether the gospels were really written by the people whose names are attached to them. And the amount of FSA clues actually make for a pretty powerful cumulative case for the traditional gospel authorship. Let's look at some of Wallace's findings with regards to...

THE GOSPEL OF MARK --

The way the gospel of Mark is worded strongly hints at Peter being the source of the information.
Gee, that conclusion wouldn't have anything to do with the fact that church history has been telling you your whole life that Mark is a written record of Peter's preaching, would it?
As we've seen above, the early church's testimony was unanimous that Mark's gospel was actually Peter's gospel.
Thank you for your honesty.
1: Mark mentioned Peter with prominence.
Peter is featured frequently in Mark's gospel. He referred to him 26 times in his gospel.
 And when Matthew quoted Mark about wthat Peter said, he apparently wasn't satisfied with Mark's inerrant text:



“Messiah”?  or “Messiah, Son of the living God”?
Mark 8
Matthew 16
27 Jesus went out, along with His disciples, to the villages of Caesarea Philippi;

and on the way He questioned His disciples, saying to them, "Who do people say that I am?"

 28 They told Him, saying, "John the Baptist; and others say Elijah; but others, one of the prophets."


 29 And He continued by questioning them, "But who do you say that I am?"

Peter answered and said to Him, "You are the Christ."














 30 And He warned them to tell no one about Him.


 31 And He began to teach them that the Son of Man must


suffer many things and be rejected by the elders and the chief priests and the scribes,
13 Now when Jesus came into the district of Caesarea Philippi,


He was asking His disciples, "Who do people say that the Son of Man is?"


 14 And they said, "Some say John the Baptist; and others, Elijah; but still others, Jeremiah, or one of the prophets."

 15 He said to them, "But who do you say that I am?"

 16 Simon Peter answered, "You are the Christ, the Son of the living God."
 17 And Jesus said to him, "Blessed are you, Simon Barjona, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but My Father who is in heaven.
 18 "I also say to you that you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build My church; and the gates of Hades will not overpower it.
 19 "I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven; and whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven."

 20 Then He warned the disciples that they should tell no one that He was the Christ.

21 From that time Jesus began to show His disciples that He must go to Jerusalem, and

suffer many things from the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and be raised up on the third day.




Sorry, but if Mark was based on Peter's preaching, we'd expect the opposite, that Mark's record of Peter's speech would be more inclusive of content.  No speculation on your part about "well maybe Mark was running out of paper, or felt the shortened form was appropriate" is going to change the fact the historical improbability here.

Matthew referred to Peter only 3 additional times in his much longer gospel.
 Mark's 16 chapter mention Peter 21 times, an average of 1.31 times per chapter.

Matthew's 28 chapters mention Peter 23 times, an average of 1.2 times per chapter.

Sorry, but the difference between "1.2" and "1.3" would only be considered significant by inerrantists.
 

2: Mark Identified Peter with the most familiarity
Mark is the only writer who never once used the term "Simon Peter".
Suggesting the author wasn't a Christian, since he himself admits Jesus assigned Simon the new name of Peter, and a Christian would rather do things Jesus' way than any other: 16 And He appointed the twelve: Simon (to whom He gave the name Peter), (Mk. 3:16 NAU)
He uses the words "Simon" and "Peter" but never "Simon Peter". This may seem like a silly and frivolous thing to point out, but not when you consider that "Simon" and "Peter" were the most popular male names in 1st-century Palestine.
No can do:  Mark was likely writing for a Roman church.

Mark never makes an effort to distinguish between the Apostle Simon with the boatloads of other Simons running around. Compare this to John's referring of the apostle as "Simon Peter" 17 times.
post-biblical history doesn't say shit about Apostle Simon either, suggesting the number of Jesus' original disciples has more theological than historical significance.
3: Mark Used Peter As a Set Of "Bookends"
In Cold Case Christianity, Wallace points out that out of the 12 disciples, Mark identifies Peter first (Mark 1:16) and he mentions him last at the very end of his gospel (Mark 16:7). Wallace said that scholars describe this as "inclusio" and noticed this same thing occurring in other ancient writings where the document is attributed to an individual. In these other ancient writings, it was the individual being "bookended" that was also the one who wrote the thing.
But a true Christian would have started and ended with Jesus, making himself fade into the background.
4: Mark Omitted Peter's Embarrassments
If you're writing a biography of someone and you're heavily involved in their life, you'd probably have a tendency to leave unflattering and embarrassing details about yourself out, right?
Not if you are inspired by an inerrant God who is incapable of giving a false impression of the facts.
You would paint yourself in a much gentler light than someone else would. We find Peter painted in the kindest possible way in Mark's gospel, far more kinder than the other 3 gospels which recount the same events. For example, while Matthew 14:22-23 calls Peter a doubter and a "man of little faith", Mark 6:45-52, which records the same event, omits Peter's involvement altogether.
 No, Mark 6:52 is including Peter in saying the disciples prior witnessing of Jesus' miracles still gave them no insight into Jesus' true nature. Mark is therefore saying Peter's level of obstinate stupidity was the same as that of the other disciples.
Luke 5 records Jesus' miracle of the catching of the fish in which Peter doubts Jesus' wisdom. Yet Mark's parallel account omits Peter's cynicism altogether.
 And for those who originally read Mark (i.e., at a time when access to other gospels was impossible) they would have gotten a more favorable impression of Peter than could be historically justified. In this case Mark being Peter's disciple gets you in trouble.  The buddy is lying by omission to make his hero look better.
5: Mark mentions details that can best be attributed to Peter

J. Warner Wallace explains that "Mark alone included a number of seemingly unimportant details that point to Peter's involvement in the shaping of the text. Mark alone told us that 'Simon and his companions' were the ones who went looking for Jesus when He was praying in a solitary place (Mark 1:35-37). Mark is also the only gospel to tell us that it was Peter who first drew Jesus' attention to the withered fig tree (compare Matt 21:18-19 with Mark 11:20-21). Mark alone seemed to be able to identify the specific disciples (including Peter) who asked Jesus about the timing of the destruction of the temple (compare Matt 24:1-3 with Mark 13:1-4)." 6
Even assuming Mark's gospel pays more attention to Peter than the others, I fail to see how you justify the jump over to "Mark must have been an eyewitness!".  It is to Wallace's shame that serious NT scholars who actually know what the fuck they are talking about, NEVER use these arguments to justify being dogmatic about Peter's influence over Mark's gospel:

"Petrine influence cannot be proved or disproved, but it should be acknowledged as a possibility."
Brooks, J. A. (2001, c1991). Vol. 23: Mark (electronic e.). Logos Library System; The New American Commentary (Page 27). Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers.
 
Given this cumulative set of FSA pieces of evidence, the best explanation is that Mark really did write Mark and that he really did get his information from Peter.
Then the fact that Matthew often corrects Mark constitutes Matthew's correcting Peter.





Was Jesus incapable, or merely unwilling?
Why didn’t Matthew want others to know that Jesus marveled at sinners lacking faith?
Mark 6
Matthew 13
NAU  Mark 6:1 Jesus went out from there and came into His hometown; and His disciples followed Him.

 2 When the Sabbath came, He began to teach in the synagogue;

and the many listeners were astonished, saying, "Where did this man get these things, and what is this wisdom given to Him,

and such miracles as these performed by His hands?

 3 "Is not this the
carpenter,

the son of Mary, and brother of James and Joses and Judas and Simon?

Are not His sisters here with us?"



And they took offense at Him.

 4 Jesus said to them,

"A prophet is not without honor except in his hometown and among his own relatives and in his own household."

 5 And He could do no miracle there except that He laid His hands on a few sick people and healed them.

 6 And He wondered at their unbelief. And He was going around the villages teaching.
54 He came to His hometown and began teaching them in their synagogue,





so that they were astonished, and said, "Where did this man get this wisdom


and these miraculous powers?


 55 "Is not this the
carpenter's son?

Is not His mother called Mary, and His brothers, James and Joseph and Simon and Judas?

 56 "And His sisters, are they not all with us? Where then did this man get all these things?"


 57 And they took offense at Him. But Jesus said to them,


"A prophet is not without honor except in his hometown and in his own household."


 58 And He did not do many miracles there because of their unbelief.


First, there will be inerrantists who are so zealous to pretend everything has fast easy answers, that they don’t stop to notice that inerrantists and non-inerrantist Christian scholars don’t find things so obvious:

Mark 6:1-6…The statement in v. 5 about the inability of Jesus is also difficult. Whether Mark’s source was Peter is much less certain.[1][1] NAC, Brooks, J. A. (2001, c1991). Vol. 23: Mark, p. 97

Geisler also has much difficulty explaining Mark 5:8 (where Jesus more than once commanded some demons to leave) and Mark 6:5 (where the text says that Jesus was not able to do any miracles in Nazareth because of the unbelief of the people there) (see pp. 149, 152).[2]

[2] Wayne Grudem, SYSTEMATIC THEOLOGY: An Introduction to Biblical Doctrine,
Zondervan Publishing House, 2008


It is a strange expression, as if unbelief tied the hands of omnipotence itself[3]
[3] Matthew Henry, Mark 6:5


Barclay knows what’s up:

Matthew shrinks from saying that Jesus could not do any mighty works; and changes the form of the expression accordingly.[4]
[4] The Gospel of Matthew  : Volume. 2000, c1975 (W. Barclay, lecturer in the University of Glasgow, Ed.). The Daily study Bible series, Rev. ed. Philadelphia: The Westminster Press.


This conclusion from Forensic Statement Analysis is only made stronger by the testimonies of the early church fathers, and the fact that Mark isn't a likely name you'd make up if you wanted to forge a gospel.
You don't know to what extent Mark was hailed as an authority in the early church, so you cannot pontificate on how a forger "would never" ascribe his gospel to the name of Mark.
Forensic Statement Analysis can actually be used to confirm the authorship of the other three gospels, but for brevity's sake, I've chosen to only highlight how it helps the case for Mark's gospel.
And the fact that Wallace cannot cite any actual scholars of the NT that find his FSA credible, sort of sucks for him.  
This Is Irrelevant To The Minimal Facts Approach

I'd like to point out that while establishing the authorship of the traditional gospels may be important to their overall reliability and trustworthiness, in The Minimal Facts approach, the issue of gospel authorship is totally irrelevant. It can be set aside.
 I accuse Habermas of taking the minimal facts approach precisely because he knew that doing things the standard way (i.e., establishing the identities and credibility of the alleged Jesus-resurrection eyewitnesses) constituted mission impossible.

How so?

First of all, Dr. Gary Habermas says that the minimal facts approach only uses data that meet two criteria: (1) the fact must have a lot of evidence in its favor, and (2) it must be nearly universally excepted by all scholars who study the subject, even the skeptical non-Christian scholars.
If J. Warner Wallace wants to apply modern American notions of evidence to the bible, then he needs to reject Habermas' shortcut approach and stick with establishing the eyewitnesses' identities and their respective levels of credibility.
While I do think the traditional authorship meets criteria 1, it's obvious that it doesn't meet criteria 2.

Secondly, the principles of historical authenticity or "The criterion of authenticity" can still be applied to all of the New Testament documents (epistle and gospel alike) to cough up the 5 facts which undergird the inference to Jesus' bodily resurrection (i.e Jesus died by crucifixion, His tomb was empty the following Sunday morning, that church persecutor Saul was converted on the basis of what he perceived as an appearance of the risen Jesus, and that the skeptic James was converted on the basis of what he perceived as an appearance of the risen Jesus), see here and here.

For example, one argument for the historicity of Jesus' unoccupied tomb is that all 4 gospels mention women as the chief witnesses to the tomb, and given their low rung on the 1st century Jewish social latter and the fact that they weren't permitted to serve as witnesses in a Jewish court of law, the gospel authors would never have made women the first on the scene if they were just making stuff up.
I think you and Wallace and Habermas have missed the boat:  the gospels were not written to convince unbelievers, the consistent testimony of the patristic sources is that the gospels were written to edify the church, and since the church elevated women higher than their own culture did, a church forger, creating gospels, would see much benefit to having women be the first eyewitnesses.
If they were making up the empty tomb narrative, they would have made males the first on the scene (far more credible witnesses). Now, does it matter whether you find this in the gospels of (A) Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John, or (B) The gospels of Bob, Tim, Suzan, and Randy? No. The criterion would still apply. Group A or Group B would probably have avoided making women the chief witnesses of the empty tomb for the reasons given above if they were simply making it up
 then apparently apostle Paul was making stuff up, because in his own chronological list of resurrection appearances, he mentions no women...despite his theological belief that they are equal with men in every way, thus leaving him no culturally ingrained reason to view the witness of women as less reliable or unworthy of preservation:
 3 For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures,
 4 and that He was buried, and that He was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures,
 5 and that He appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve.
 6 After that He appeared to more than five hundred brethren at one time, most of whom remain until now, but some have fallen asleep;
 7 then He appeared to James, then to all the apostles;
 8 and last of all, as to one untimely born, He appeared to me also. (1 Cor. 15:3-8 NAU)

 28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus. (Gal. 3:28 NAU)

. The Jerusalem Factor argument would also be unaffected (i.e that the empty tomb is the best explanation for the opponents of Christianity didn't just produce Jesus' body to squash the whole thing).
Sorry, but a) you are assuming unbelievers hearing the original Christian message gave enough of a shit about the message to bother with the legal mess of opening the grave and following Christians around with a display of the Jesus' corpse, which is fucking stupid; b) you are assuming no such thing happened, when in fact by your own admission, some gospel authors felt it best to omit things they felt would hinder their case.  If anybody did use Jesus' corpse to disprove the original resurrection preaching, we have good reason to think Christians would have made sure to do what Mark did in the case of Peter, and "omit" details that would make the movement look foolish, and c) Acts makes it clear that the disciples didn't publicly preach the resurrection of Jesus until at least 40 days after he died (Acts 1:3), during which time the corpse would have decomposed sufficiently to make it difficult or impossible to use it to discredit the resurrection preaching.

And I think Acts is bullshit anyway, the consensus of Christian scholars is that Mark is the earliest gospel and ends at 16:8, meaning the earliest written form of Christian preaching leaves you no historical evidence that the risen Christ ever made any resurrection appearances.  So if Acts has the apostle going all over hell and back screaming their heads off about the bodily resurrection of Jesus, it's a good story...and that's all.
You can still make The Jerusalem Factor argument without knowing who authored the gospels.
But proper identification of the alleged eyewitnesses and independent evaluation of their testimony and credibility is still the more responsible method of establishing history.  For example, the unanimity of the early church fathers on Matthew's authorship of  gospel is rejected by most scholars who think all the Fathers are doing is merely repeating what Papias had to say.  In other words, there can be legitimate scholarly concern that what looks so "multiply attested" is actually a single false testimony that was picked up and echoed by subsequent authors.
Or, does it matter in establishing that Jesus died by crucifixion? No, both the canonical gospels and John mention Jesus' crucifixion, and therefore they can be included in the list of ancient documents that record it along with Josephus, Tacitus, Lucian, Mara Bar Sarapian, and the epistles of Paul. We can still include the gospels as being additional sources in our claim that Jesus' death by crucifixion is multiply attested, no matter who wrote them.

Now, whether or not Paul wrote 1 Corinthians, 2nd Corinthians, Galatians, and the other epistles would have a bearing on the potency of the minimal facts approach, but virtually no skeptical historian of ancient history doubts that Paul wrote the epistles that bare his name (save for the pastoral epistles), so we apologists don't have to worry about that.
 Correct, Paul can be impeached by his own statements and errors, no need to invoke German theologians of the 19th century who are skeptical of everything except their own skepticism.
I bring this up because gospel authorship is one of the things I hear in my debates against skeptics about the minimal facts case for the resurrection of Jesus, and it's just not relevant.
on the contrary, establishing the identity and credibility of the alleged resurrection eyewitnesses is the more justified historiographical procedure.

------------------
 I informed "Cerebral faith" of this reply:






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